- #1
Mr Indeterminate
- 20
- 0
Now I expect that most of you on this forum would be familiar with the equality between point nine reoccurring and one:
Now this equality can be used to imply something else, which is rather heterodox, consider the below:
As the mathematical consensus is that division by zero is undefined, why is the proof incorrect?
0.999...=1
If your not familiar please review https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/0.999...
Now this equality can be used to imply something else, which is rather heterodox, consider the below:
Point nine reoccurring is only one infinith smaller than one
0. 999 ... +(1/∞)= 1
But as point nine reoccurring and one are equal, point nine reoccurring is one infinith smaller than itself
0. 999 ... +(1/∞)= 0. 999 ...
It is only logical then to conclude that one infinith is equal to zero
0. 999 ... − 0. 999 ... +(1/∞)= 0. 999 ... − 0. 999 ...
1/∞= 0
Which can in turn be inverted to reveal that infinity is equal to one divided by zero
∞ =1/0∎
0. 999 ... +(1/∞)= 1
But as point nine reoccurring and one are equal, point nine reoccurring is one infinith smaller than itself
0. 999 ... +(1/∞)= 0. 999 ...
It is only logical then to conclude that one infinith is equal to zero
0. 999 ... − 0. 999 ... +(1/∞)= 0. 999 ... − 0. 999 ...
1/∞= 0
Which can in turn be inverted to reveal that infinity is equal to one divided by zero
∞ =1/0∎
As the mathematical consensus is that division by zero is undefined, why is the proof incorrect?