- #1
PFuser1232
- 479
- 20
Why exactly is there no such thing as an inverse factorial function? Now I am fully aware of the fact that the factorial function (##f(x) = x!##) is not one-to-one, since both 0! and 1! equal 1. But can't we circumvent this by restricting the domain of f such that it only includes values of x greater than or equal to 1?