- #1
zheng89120
- 149
- 0
Can someone give a more intuitive explanation on how it is (if it is true), that;
∫all cos (nx) cos (mx) = 0 if n!=m
or
∫all sin (nx) sin (mx) = 0 if n!=m
thanks
∫all cos (nx) cos (mx) = 0 if n!=m
or
∫all sin (nx) sin (mx) = 0 if n!=m
thanks