Can anybody explain this to me?

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In summary, the conversation discusses the limit of a sequence <f(x_n)> for a given case and questions the answer stating that the limit must be zero. It is then clarified that the limit is not equal to zero and a more complicated approach is suggested for proving this. The conversation also mentions the agreement of the limit if x=0.
  • #1
Artusartos
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In this link:


http://people.ischool.berkeley.edu/~johnsonb/Welcome_files/104/104hw9sum06.pdf

For number 28.8 b),

...for case 1, they say that x is the limit for the sequnce <x_n>, right? So doesn't the limit for the sequence <f(x_n)> need to be x^2? Why does the answer say that it must be zero?
 
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  • #2
That would be true for f continuous, which the exercise is proving to be false. That approach seems a bit complicated.
if x_n is always rational
lim <f(x_n)>=0
if x_n is never rational
lim <f(x_n)>=x^2

they agree if and only if x=0
 
  • #3
Hi Artusartos! :smile:
Artusartos said:
For number 28.8 b),

...for case 1, they say that x is the limit for the sequnce <x_n>, right? So doesn't the limit for the sequence <f(x_n)> need to be x^2? Why does the answer say that it must be zero?

No, it says limn->∞xn2 = x2 0. :wink:

(not equal to)
 

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