- #1
humphreybogart
- 22
- 1
The rate of working of the Reynolds Stress can be written as:
where ui is the fluctuating velocity and Ūi is the time-averaged velocity.
It is stated in the textbook that, if we integrate the above equation over a closed volume V, the divergence term on the left integrates to zero since τRij (Reynolds Stress) vanishes on the boundary. What does this mean?
The context is that, with this being zero, the author proves that globally, the integral over the closed volume of the two terms on the right must balance. Maybe if I understood the latter statement, I would understand this last sentence...?
Thanks
where ui is the fluctuating velocity and Ūi is the time-averaged velocity.
It is stated in the textbook that, if we integrate the above equation over a closed volume V, the divergence term on the left integrates to zero since τRij (Reynolds Stress) vanishes on the boundary. What does this mean?
The context is that, with this being zero, the author proves that globally, the integral over the closed volume of the two terms on the right must balance. Maybe if I understood the latter statement, I would understand this last sentence...?
Thanks