Why does it suffice to show it for n=4 and n=p?

  • MHB
  • Thread starter evinda
  • Start date
In summary, the Fermat equation $X^n+Y^n=Z^n, n \geq 3, X \cdot Y \cdot Z \neq 0$ has no integer solutions.
  • #1
evinda
Gold Member
MHB
3,836
0
Hi! (Wave)

The Fermat equation $X^n+Y^n=Z^n, n \geq 3, X \cdot Y \cdot Z \neq 0$ has no integer solutions.

Remark: It suffices to prove the hypothesis for $n=4$ and $n=p \in \mathbb{P} (p \neq 2)$.

Could you explain me why, in order to show that the Fermat equation has no integer solutions, it suffices to show it for $n=4$ and for $n=p$ ? (Thinking)
 
Mathematics news on Phys.org
  • #2
evinda said:
Hi! (Wave)

The Fermat equation $X^n+Y^n=Z^n, n \geq 3, X \cdot Y \cdot Z \neq 0$ has no integer solutions.

Remark: It suffices to prove the hypothesis for $n=4$ and $n=p \in \mathbb{P} (p \neq 2)$.

Could you explain me why, in order to show that the Fermat equation has no integer solutions, it suffices to show it for $n=4$ and for $n=p$ ? (Thinking)

Hint: if $x^{pq} + y^{pq} = z^{pq}$, then $(x^p)^q + (y^p)^q = (z^p)^q$. Use the fundamental theorem of arithmetic, suitably modified to take into account the $n = 4$ case, and conclude.
 
  • #3
Just a note to why Bacterius's reasoning doesn't work for $n = 4$ :

$$X^4 + Y^4 = Z^4 \Longrightarrow (X^2)^2 + (Y^2)^2 = (Z^2)^2$$

But that doesn't conclude anything, as there can be infinitely many solutions in general to $x^2 + y^2 = z^2$.
 
  • #4
Bacterius said:
Hint: if $x^{pq} + y^{pq} = z^{pq}$, then $(x^p)^q + (y^p)^q = (z^p)^q$. Use the fundamental theorem of arithmetic, suitably modified to take into account the $n = 4$ case, and conclude.

So, because of the fact that all numbers $n \geq 3, n \neq 4$ can be written as a product of prime numbers, at least one of which is different from $2$, we can show that $x^n+y^n=z^n$ has no integer solutions, when $n$ is a prime? (Thinking)

How can I use the fundamental theorem of arithmetic, to show that $X^4+Y^4=Z^4$ has no integer solutions? (Thinking)
 
  • #5
evinda said:
So, because of the fact that all numbers $n \geq 3, n \neq 4$ can be written as a product of prime numbers, at least one of which is different from $2$, we can show that $x^n+y^n=z^n$ has no integer solutions, when $n$ is a prime? (Thinking)

Minor correction : it's because of all numbers $> 4$ can be written as a product of primes with at least one prime $> 2$.

How can I use the fundamental theorem of arithmetic, to show that $X^4+Y^4=Z^4$ has no integer solutions?

As a matter of fact you cannot, as I have indicated in my last comment. You need to use some of the "magic tricks" like infinite descent to handle this one. If you are interested, I could post the idea behind.
 
  • #6
mathbalarka said:
Minor correction : it's because of all numbers $> 4$ can be written as a product of primes with at least one prime $> 2$.

(Nod)
mathbalarka said:
As a matter of fact you cannot, as I have indicated in my last comment. You need to use some of the "magic tricks" like infinite descent to handle this one. If you are interested, I could post the idea behind.

Yes, it would be nice.. (Smile)
 

Related to Why does it suffice to show it for n=4 and n=p?

1. Why is it important to show a proof for n=4 and n=p?

Proving a statement for specific values of n, such as n=4 and n=p, helps to establish a foundation for the general case. It allows us to gain insight into the problem and develop a strategy for proving the statement for all values of n.

2. How does showing it for n=4 and n=p make the proof easier?

By showing the statement for specific values of n, we can often identify patterns or relationships that hold true for all values of n. This can simplify the proof and make it easier to understand and follow.

3. Can we assume that if it holds for n=4 and n=p, it holds for all values of n?

In general, no. However, if the proof for n=4 and n=p is strong and comprehensive, it can provide evidence or intuition for why the statement holds for all values of n.

4. Is proving it for n=4 and n=p sufficient to prove the statement for all values of n?

Not necessarily. While proving the statement for specific values of n is a good start, it is important to also consider other cases and potential counterexamples to ensure that the statement holds for all possible values of n.

5. Why is it common to use n=4 and n=p in mathematical proofs?

Often, n=4 and n=p are chosen because they represent specific cases that are relatively easy to prove or provide insight into the problem. They also allow for a generalization to be made for all values of n.

Similar threads

Replies
15
Views
1K
  • General Math
Replies
7
Views
558
  • General Math
Replies
3
Views
1K
Replies
2
Views
1K
Replies
3
Views
799
Replies
1
Views
649
Replies
6
Views
949
Replies
3
Views
1K
  • General Math
Replies
2
Views
1K
  • Linear and Abstract Algebra
Replies
13
Views
1K
Back
Top