What is the Franck-Condon principle?

[physics love]

hi guys

I want to know what is the Franck-Condon principle?... please in details

thanks for all

 

[DrDu]

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Franck–Condon_principle

 

[schafspelz]

From the BO approximation, we have the product of the electronic [itex]\varphi_i(r,R)[/itex] and the nuclear [itex]\eta_i(R)[/itex] wavefunction. For the transition, we use Fermi's Golden rule, where the Dipole-Operator [itex]\mu[/itex] "initiates" the transition. So we end up in
[itex]r_{i\rightarrow j}=\left\langle \eta_i(R) \varphi_i(r,R) |\mu| \varphi_j(r,R) \eta_j(R) \right\rangle[/itex].
Here we have an inner integral over the electron coordinates [itex]r[/itex] and an outer integral over the nuclei coordinates [itex]R[/itex]. It is important to note here that the inner integral [itex]\left\langle \varphi_i(r,R) |\mu| \varphi_j(r,R) \right\rangle[/itex] is a function of [itex]R[/itex]. The approximation is now that this inner integral is taken out of the outer interal, even though the former one is dependent of [itex]R[/itex] - which is the integration variable of the outer integral. Now the above equation looks like this:
[itex]r_{i\rightarrow j}= \left\langle\varphi_i(r,R) |\mu| \varphi_j(r,R) \right\rangle \cdot\left\langle \eta_i(R)|\eta_j(R) \right\rangle[/itex]
So actually the electronic integral is handled independently of the nuclei integral. The former one is a usual transition (with an operator for the transition according to Fermi's Golden rule), while the latter one is only an overlap of wavefunctions any more!

 

[DrDu]

Schafspelz, the approximation you made can be justified further by using diabatic electronic states ##\eta_j## instead of the adiabatic electronic wavefunctions. The diabatic states depend only very little on R.
A second step in the Franck-Condon approximation is to replace the dipole integral by a semiclassical expression so that only the neighbourhoods of the turning points of the nuclear motion contribute to the integrand.