Uniqueness of value of Riemann Integral(proof)

In summary, the conversation discusses the proof of A = B in a document. The main points being questioned are the definition of ε, which is a positive arbitrary real number, and how it is used to show that A and B are equal. The reasoning behind this is that, in analysis, if two things have a difference less than an arbitrarily small number, they can be considered equal. This concept is related to the concepts of supremum and infimum of a set. There is a discussion about the wording and clarity of the proof, leading to the conclusion that A and B are indeed equal.
  • #1
Miike012
1,009
0
The proof is in the document.

I highlighted the main points that I am questioning in the document.

I am questioning the fact that A = B...
(The following is in the document)
|A-B|=ε where they define the value of ε to be a positive arbitrary real number (ε>0).

And for A = B that means ε must be equal to zero however ε>0.

My Reasoning
For A≥B we have
A - B = ε
And for B≥A we have
A - B = -ε

And after solving the system of two eq. A - B = ε & A - B = -ε
we getA - B = 0
∴ A = B.
Is this how they proved A is the same as B?
 

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  • #2
This is a standard move in analysis. If you want to show two things are equal, then you show that their difference is less than epsilon for an arbitrary epsilon. Since you can get the difference as close as you like to zero, it might as well be zero. Have you learned about things like supremum and infimum of a set?
 
  • #3
ArcanaNoir said:
If you want to show two things are equal, then you show that their difference is less than epsilon for an arbitrary epsilon. Since you can get the difference as close as you like to zero, it might as well be zero.

Can you explain this mathematically? It doesn't make sense to me how you can say two things are equal just because they differ by an arbitrary value ε where we choose ε to → 0.
You can say two things are approximate though.

And I have not taken an analysis course.
 
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  • #4
Deleted comment
 
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  • #5
Miike012 said:
|A-B|=ε where they define the value of ε to be a positive arbitrary real number (ε>0)

This is not what they have. If |A-B| = ε and ε was nonzero, then A and B would not be equal. What they have is |A-B|≤ ε.
 
  • #6
Office_Shredder said:
This is not what they have. If |A-B| = ε and ε was nonzero, then A and B would not be equal. What they have is |A-B|≤ ε.

Thank you. It makes sense now.
 
  • #7
ArcanaNoir said:
This is a standard move in analysis. If you want to show two things are equal, then you show that their difference is less than epsilon for an arbitrary epsilon. Since you can get the difference as close as you like to zero, it might as well be zero.0
I don't like the wording "it might as well be 0". That makes it sound like we can choose whether to have this number 0 or not. If, for any [itex]\epsilon> 0[/itex], [itex]z< \epsilon[/itex], z cannot be positive since then we could take [itex]\epsilon[/itex] (which can be any positive number) to be z itself and conclude that "z< z"/

Have you learned about things like supremum and infimum of a set?
 
  • #8
HallsofIvy said:
I don't like the wording "it might as well be 0". That makes it sound like we can choose whether to have this number 0 or not. If, for any [itex]\epsilon> 0[/itex], [itex]z< \epsilon[/itex], z cannot be positive since then we could take [itex]\epsilon[/itex] (which can be any positive number) to be z itself and conclude that "z< z"/

Good call. I concur.
 

Related to Uniqueness of value of Riemann Integral(proof)

1. What is the Riemann Integral and why is it important?

The Riemann Integral is a mathematical concept that measures the area under a curve on a graph. It is important because it allows us to solve various real-world problems, such as finding the distance traveled by an object given its velocity function.

2. What makes the value of Riemann Integral unique?

The value of Riemann Integral is unique because it is defined as the limit of a sum of infinitely many infinitesimal rectangles, which are determined by the width of the intervals and the values of the function at specific points within those intervals. This ensures that the value is precise and not dependent on any arbitrary choices.

3. How is the uniqueness of Riemann Integral proven?

The uniqueness of Riemann Integral is proven through the Fundamental Theorem of Calculus, which states that the Riemann Integral is the unique antiderivative of a given function. This means that the Riemann Integral is the only way to measure the area under a curve with respect to its function.

4. Can the uniqueness of Riemann Integral be applied to all functions?

No, the uniqueness of Riemann Integral can only be applied to functions that are continuous on a closed interval. This means that the function must have no gaps or jumps in its graph within the interval and must be defined at every point within the interval.

5. What are some real-world applications of the uniqueness of Riemann Integral?

The uniqueness of Riemann Integral has many real-world applications, such as calculating the work done by a variable force, determining the volume of irregular shapes, and finding the average value of a function over an interval. It is also used in various fields of science, engineering, and economics.

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