- #1
Delong
- 400
- 17
Can someone help me understand why this is the case? I tried forming a cartesian equation for the two circles but there were too many variables that it would be too messy to compute. Otherwise I am rather stuck on how to do it. I would appreciate it if someone can explain how to prove this theorem in accessible terms. Thanks.
In a triangle the inscribed circle touches the circle that passes through the midpoints of the sides.
In a triangle the inscribed circle touches the circle that passes through the midpoints of the sides.