- #1
Backpacker
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Consider the time-reversal Lorentz transformation given by the 4x4 matrix:
[itex]\Lambda_T = \begin{pmatrix}
-1 & 0 & 0 & 0\\
0 &1 & 0 & 0\\
0 & 0 & 1 & 0 \\
0 & 0 & 0 &1
\end{pmatrix}.
[/itex]
In my relativistic quantum mechanics lecture, we discussed how the electromagnetic 4-potential transforms under this particular Lorentz transformation. Without invoking any sort of mathematical argument, the prof argued that the four-potential transforms as
[itex]
\begin{align*}
A_0 (x^0,x^i)\longmapsto & A'_0 (x'^0,x'^i)=A_0 (-x^0,x^i)\\
A_j (x^0,x^i)\longmapsto & A'_j (x'^0,x'^i)=-A_j (-x^0,x^i)
\end{align*}
[/itex]
based on the idea that currents reverse under time-reversal.
Is there a good mathematical reasoning for this? It seems to me that since four-vectors transform as [itex]A\mapsto \Lambda A[/itex], the minus sign should be applied to [itex]A_0[/itex].
[itex]\Lambda_T = \begin{pmatrix}
-1 & 0 & 0 & 0\\
0 &1 & 0 & 0\\
0 & 0 & 1 & 0 \\
0 & 0 & 0 &1
\end{pmatrix}.
[/itex]
In my relativistic quantum mechanics lecture, we discussed how the electromagnetic 4-potential transforms under this particular Lorentz transformation. Without invoking any sort of mathematical argument, the prof argued that the four-potential transforms as
[itex]
\begin{align*}
A_0 (x^0,x^i)\longmapsto & A'_0 (x'^0,x'^i)=A_0 (-x^0,x^i)\\
A_j (x^0,x^i)\longmapsto & A'_j (x'^0,x'^i)=-A_j (-x^0,x^i)
\end{align*}
[/itex]
based on the idea that currents reverse under time-reversal.
Is there a good mathematical reasoning for this? It seems to me that since four-vectors transform as [itex]A\mapsto \Lambda A[/itex], the minus sign should be applied to [itex]A_0[/itex].