- #1
l'Hôpital
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Homework Statement
http://www.math.northwestern.edu/graduate/prelims/AnalysisPrelim2010FallFinalVersion.pdf
Problem 2 of Part III.
Homework Equations
Complex Analysis.
The Attempt at a Solution
So, I think my proof is wrong (since I never used the fact that it was [itex]f^2[/itex]) as opposed to [itex]f[/itex]. So, could you point out at where?
Since [itex]f[/itex] is meromorphic, it can only have poles as discontinuities. We'll argue by means of contradiction. Let [itex]a[/itex] be a pole of [itex]f[/itex]. Since meromorphic functions have isolated zeroes, there exists a small disk with border [itex]\gamma[/itex] around [itex]a[/itex] such that [itex]f[/itex] has no zeroes, nor other singulaties. In particular, this implies [itex]g := \frac{1}{f^2}[/itex] is analytic on said disk. Applying Runge's theorem, we can obtain a sequence of polynomials [itex]g_n[/itex] uniformly converging to [itex]g[/itex]. So, [tex] \int_{\gamma} g_n f^2 dz \rightarrow \int_{\gamma} gf^2 dz = length(\gamma) [/tex] But by the given,
[tex]\int_{\gamma} g_n f^2 dz = 0[/tex] for all [itex]g_n[/itex], which is a contradiction.
Am I just invoking a theorem too powerful?