- #1
Jerrynap
- 8
- 0
Hi guys, I need help on interpreting this solution.
Let me have two wave functions:
[itex]\phi_1 = N_1(r) (x+iy)[/itex]
[itex]\phi_2 = N_2(r) (x-iy)[/itex]
If the angular momentum acts on both of them, the result will be:
[itex]L_z \phi_1 = \hbar \phi_1[/itex]
[itex]L_z \phi_2 = -\hbar \phi_2[/itex]
My concern is, [itex]\phi_1[/itex] and [itex]\phi_2[/itex] look really like the complex conjugate of each other, so why do they have different eigenvalue?
Let me have two wave functions:
[itex]\phi_1 = N_1(r) (x+iy)[/itex]
[itex]\phi_2 = N_2(r) (x-iy)[/itex]
If the angular momentum acts on both of them, the result will be:
[itex]L_z \phi_1 = \hbar \phi_1[/itex]
[itex]L_z \phi_2 = -\hbar \phi_2[/itex]
My concern is, [itex]\phi_1[/itex] and [itex]\phi_2[/itex] look really like the complex conjugate of each other, so why do they have different eigenvalue?