Special relativity - frame of reference

In summary: The issue is not about the type of clock, it is about the actual passage of time. Acceleration/force is not important here, except in as much as it determines relative speed, which is important.To be slightly more helpful, imagine someone with a very steady heartbeat. Wire them to an ECG and use the beat as a timer to open and shut a gate. Arrange a pendulum clock so that the pendulum passes through the gate if it is open and crashes if it is closed. It must be synchronised to the person's heartbeat, of course.If time dilation does not apply equally to the heartbeat as the clock, an observer in motion cannot explain why the clock continues to run
  • #71
DanMP said:
No, I'm pretty sure that this is "the best tree", if we want to solve the mystery of dark matter and to finally/really understand relativity.
Dude, you are SERIOUSLY barking up the wrong tree. I am constantly astounded by the patience of the mentors here but I predict that this thread has run its course.
 
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  • #72
phinds said:
Dude, you are SERIOUSLY barking up the wrong tree. I am constantly astounded by the patience of the mentors here but I predict that this thread has run its course.
I think that my questions are legitimate and deserve to be answered.
 
  • #73
DanMP said:
The geometry is good in explaining how to understand and apply the theory, but it is as good in "explaining" what is really happening as contour lines in a topographical map: we can say that we get more tired walking between A and B because we cross contour lines (climbing a hill), but we need to explain why/how contour lines are responsible for this.
This analogy is wrong. The relevant one is why is it a longer distance over the hill than through a straight tunnel. What answer would you consider acceptable to that question?
 
  • #74
DanMP said:
No, I'm pretty sure that this is "the best tree", if we want to solve the mystery of dark matter and to finally/really understand relativity.
Wow. That came from nowhere. Are you really telling all these scientists how to do their job?
 
  • #75
Ibix said:
This analogy is wrong. The relevant one is why is it a longer distance over the hill than through a straight tunnel. What answer would you consider acceptable to that question?
My analogy is not wrong, because it is about causality. The one with the tunnel is, again, just geometry.
 
  • #76
DanMP said:
My analogy is not wrong, because it is about causality. The one with the tunnel is, again, just geometry.
You are confusing doing work against gravity (countours) with traveling a further distance (route).
 
  • #77
DanMP said:
I think that my questions are legitimate and deserve to be answered.
But they have BEEN answered. You just don't seem to LIKE the answers.
 
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  • #78
DanMP said:
My analogy is not wrong, because it is about causality. The one with the tunnel is, again, just geometry.
So "it's just geometry" is, to you, an acceptable answer for "why are the distances different", but not for "why are the times different". Do I understand you correctly?
 
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  • #79
DanMP said:
How exactly they do that? According to Dale, clocks are counting oscillations. I can't see the direct connection between that and the spacetime, or "the time part of space-time".

The geometry is good in explaining how to understand and apply the theory, but it is as good in "explaining" what is really happening as contour lines in a topographical map: we can say that we get more tired walking between A and B because we cross contour lines (climbing a hill), but we need to explain why/how contour lines are responsible for this. The same is valid, in my opinion, for world lines / paths through spacetime: we need to show the direct connection, if there is any, between them and the clocks.

No, I'm pretty sure that this is "the best tree", if we want to solve the mystery of dark matter and to finally/really understand relativity.
You're fixated on the idea of objects interacting with space(/time) probably because most of our experiences happen on Earth, where we are physically attached to an object with a certain geometry, so it makes for a convenient example. Please understand: this analogy is leading you astray because you are not, in fact, interacting with space (you are not interacting with geometry) you are interacting with an object.

If you use spaceship travel instead, the geometry is harder to visualize, but the fact that you are not interacting with space becomes obvious.
 
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  • #80
m4r35n357 said:
Are you really telling all these scientists how to do their job?
No. I obtained interesting results doing that, so I offered a hint. Nothing more. Take it or leave it (to me) :-)
 
  • #81
Ibix said:
So "it's just geometry" is, to you, an acceptable answer for "why are the distances different", but not for "why are the times different". Do I understand you correctly?
Yes. Distances in space are easy to deal with, but with time is different:
Dale said:
the geometry makes it so that a bent path in space always requires more wheel rotations and a bent path in spacetime requires fewer hyperfine transitions.
Why (if I understand correctly) a clock measures less time in a bent (longer) path in spacetime? This (at least) requires an explanation, but also:
DanMP said:
clocks are counting oscillations. I can't see the direct connection between that and the spacetime, or "the time part of space-time".
 
  • #82
DanMP said:
Yes. Distances in space are easy to deal with, but with time is different:
It really isn't.

Why (if I understand correctly) a clock measures less time in a bent (longer) path in spacetime? This (at least) require an explanation, but also:
Because Minkowski geometry does not work like Euclidean geometry. Rather than having the Pythagorean theorem ##c^2 = a^2 + b^2##, you have the corresponding relation ##(c\tau)^2 = (ct)^2 - x^2##. This geometry is required in order for the speed of light to be invariant.
 
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  • #83
DanMP said:
Why (if I understand correctly) a clock measures less time in a bent (longer) path in spacetime? This (at least) requires an explanation

Because it's a shorter path in spacetime.
 
  • #84
Orodruin said:
... Minkowski geometry does not work like Euclidiean geometry. Rather than having the Pythagorean theorem ##c^2 = a^2 + b^2##, you have the corresponding relation ##(c\tau)^2 = (ct)^2 - x^2##. This geometry is required in order for the speed of light to be invariant.
Ok, so one question was answered. Thank you!

What about the other one?
 
  • #85
DanMP said:
This (at least) requires an explanation, but also:
To measure distance you see how many times a thing of known constant length fits between point A and point B. To measure duration you see how many times a thing of known constant time fits between event A and event B. We call the first thing a ruler and the second a clock.
 
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  • #86
DanMP said:
How exactly they do that? According to Dale, clocks are counting oscillations. I can't see the direct connection between that and the spacetime, or "the time part of space-time".
We can measure the distance along a path in space with meter sticks: place the meter sticks end to end and then count the number of meter sticks needed. Equivalently we can use just one meter stick, repeatedly picking it up and putting it down again with the near end where the far end had been, and count the number of times we placed the stick before we reached the end of the path.

Counting oscillations is the analgous procedure for measuring the interval along a timelike path through spacetime. Just as a meter stick represents one unit of distance, one cycle of an oscillator represents one unit of time.
 
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  • #87
DanMP said:
Ok, so one question was answered. Thank you!

What about the other one?
Your post only contained one question.
 
  • #88
Ibix said:
To measure distance you see how many times a thing of known constant length fits between point A and point B. To measure duration you see how many times a thing of known constant time fits between event A and event B. We call the first thing a ruler and the second a clock.
Yes, this is a nice explanation. I like it. Thank you!

Nugatory said:
We can measure the distance along a path in space with meter sticks: place the meter sticks end to end and then count the number of meter sticks needed. Equivalently we can use just one meter stick, repeatedly picking it up and putting it down again with the near end where the far end had been, and count the number of times we placed the stick before we reached the end of the path.

Counting oscillations is the analgous procedure for measuring the interval along a timelike path through spacetime.
Another very nice explanation. Thank you!

Ok, thank you all. Best regards!
 
  • #89
DanMP said:
The geometry is good in explaining how to understand and apply the theory, but it is as good in "explaining" what is really happening as contour lines in a topographical map: we can say that we get more tired walking between A and B because we cross contour lines (climbing a hill), but we need to explain why/how contour lines are responsible for this. The same is valid, in my opinion, for world lines / paths through spacetime: we need to show the direct connection, if there is any, between them and the clocks.
Let me ask you a closely related question here. If we draw a triangle on a piece of paper and then measure the length of one side with a ruler and compare it to the length of the other two sides measured with similar rulers, then we always find that the two sides together are longer than the one side. How would you explain that?

The reason I ask is because I think that the geometry is a complete answer, but you do not. So if I can understand what sort of answer you would find satisfying for the triangle question then I can probably make a similar answer for time that would be satisfying for you.
 
  • #90
Dale said:
Let me ask you a closely related question here. If we draw a triangle on a piece of paper and then measure the length of one side with a ruler and compare it to the length of the other two sides measured with similar rulers, then we always find that the two sides together are longer than the one side. How would you explain that?

The reason I ask is because I think that the geometry is a complete answer, but you do not. So if I can understand what sort of answer you would find satisfying for the triangle question then I can probably make a similar answer for time that would be satisfying for you.

As you can see, I finally accepted geometry / spacetime as a good/valid answer. My problem was that I thought a bent path should be longer than a straight one. I received 2 answers explaining that "Minkowski geometry does not work like Euclidean geometry" and "it's a shorter path in spacetime". With this info, it was easy to see the logic of the mainstream explanation.

However, I still don't think that this is the only explanation possible (I actually found one myself, in agreement with the current one, but different in the understanding of reality). Considering the above topographic map analogy, if someone would be able to successfully explain gravity, work, etc. using such a model, with contour lines, would you believe that we live in a 2D world? Wouldn't you prefer a 3D approach, equally successful? The same is with my explanation: it is a 3D one, but in agreement with 4D spacetime explanation. And there are ways to experimentally test the new model. Unfortunately, I can't tell you more, unless I'm allowed to offer the link in a private message.

PS: If someone has an accident, we can safely say that his path through spacetime led to it. Would you accept "path through spacetime" as an explanation in this case?
 
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  • #91
DanMP said:
I finally accepted geometry / spacetime as a good/valid answer.
Excellent!

DanMP said:
I still don't think that this is the only explanation possible (I actually found one myself, in agreement with the current one, but different in the understanding of reality)
Agreed. It is well known that it is not the only explanation possible. These explanations are called “interpretations” and all use the same math and make the same experimental predictions. They just differ in how the variables are interpreted and what parts are considered “real”.

However, do be aware that it is the answer which directly generalizes to GR. For that reason it is by far preferred by the community. I personally encourage you to know and use all interpretations as mental/organizational aids without getting bogged down in debating the philosophical superiority of one or the other.

DanMP said:
And there are ways to experimentally test the new model.
Then it would be a new theory and not a new interpretation. Almost certainly it would be experimentally falsified already. However, we cannot discuss it here until after it is published in the scientific literature.
 
  • #92
Dale said:
However, we cannot discuss it here until after it is published in the scientific literature.

As far as I know, though, its allowed to ask if some idea has historically been proposed / published / discarded etc. That said, it doesn't seem this thread is headed that way.
 
  • #93
DanMP said:
Yes. Distances in space are easy to deal with, but with time is different:

Why (if I understand correctly) a clock measures less time in a bent (longer) path in spacetime? This (at least) requires an explanation, but also:
Because distance in Minkowski space has a different formula. It's not a2 + b2, it's a2 - b2

EDIT- sorry Orodruin already addressed this.
 
  • #94
Dale said:
Excellent!

Agreed. It is well known that it is not the only explanation possible. These explanations are called “interpretations” and all use the same math and make the same experimental predictions. They just differ in how the variables are interpreted and what parts are considered “real”.

However, do be aware that it is the answer which directly generalizes to GR. For that reason it is by far preferred by the community. I personally encourage you to know and use all interpretations as mental/organizational aids without getting bogged down in debating the philosophical superiority of one or the other.

Then it would be a new theory and not a new interpretation. Almost certainly it would be experimentally falsified already. However, we cannot discuss it here until after it is published in the scientific literature.
Hey Dale, regarding the actual math, correct me if I'm wrong, but there is only one possibility that is consistent with isotropy, the principle of relativity, and a finite universal speed limit, right?

I've seen several general derivations of coordinate transformations between inertial reference frames, and even managed to do a fairly general one myself, and I don't see how there is any other possibility. Granted, you could use the same math and interpret an invisible, impossible to detect absolute reference frame for example, but wouldn't the math always work out the same?
 
  • #95
Grinkle said:
As far as I know, though, its allowed to ask if some idea has historically been proposed / published / discarded etc. That said, it doesn't seem this thread is headed that way.
I already insisted too much with this, so I think it is better to stop, at least for a while. I may come back, in a new thread, with questions about the experiments. Until then, thank you all for your patience and for your useful answers.
 
  • #96
Sorcerer said:
regarding the actual math, correct me if I'm wrong, but there is only one possibility that is consistent with isotropy, the principle of relativity, and a finite universal speed limit, right?
Yes, that is correct.
 
  • #97
Sorcerer said:
Hey Dale, regarding the actual math, correct me if I'm wrong, but there is only one possibility that is consistent with isotropy, the principle of relativity, and a finite universal speed limit, right?

I've seen several general derivations of coordinate transformations between inertial reference frames, and even managed to do a fairly general one myself, and I don't see how there is any other possibility. Granted, you could use the same math and interpret an invisible, impossible to detect absolute reference frame for example, but wouldn't the math always work out the same?
Indeed, for me this is the most beautiful derivation, but it's very mathematical, and that's why you usually don't find it in textbooks about SRT:

Assuming only the special principle of relativity, the existence of inertial frames, and the "Euclidicity" of the space wrt. to any inertial observer, leads to two possible spacetimes, i.e., Galilei-Newton or Einstein-Minkowski spacetime.

A nice paper treating the Lorentz transformation in 1+1 dimensions in this way, is
https://doi.org/10.1119/1.4901453

For the general treatment I know only an old German paper

Ann. Phys. 339, 825 (1911)
doi:10.1002/andp.19113390502

My own attempt to derive the LT in this way is also available in German only:

https://th.physik.uni-frankfurt.de/~hees/faq-pdf/mech.pdf
 
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  • #98
vanhees71 said:
Indeed, for me this is the most beautiful derivation, but it's very mathematical, and that's why you usually don't find it in textbooks about SRT
As a "non-professional" I like to start by addressing the differences between Galilean and Special Relativity by direct comparison. So, starting from the Galilean transform ("assume Newton's laws hold good"), we ask why is there a zero element in it, and what would be the consequences of allowing it to be non-zero? Well straight away you see that it would destroy the notion of universal time. so that is already dealt with in advance ;) Then we ask what other properties does the Galilean Transform have, and the only one I think you need is that the determinant is one (which eliminates annoying scaling issues going forward and back).

The derivation then proceeds as per the last third of my most quoted source (worth reading it all afterwards I think!), although I like to fill in a coupe of steps for clarity. So now we have the Lorentz Transform, and the velocity addition formula. At this point I like to demonstrate explicitly that the spacetime interval is invariant by doing the algebra, and that is it for the basics.

I think that is the shortest and simplest (for a beginner not into advanced mathematics).
 
  • #99
vanhees71 said:
Indeed, for me this is the most beautiful derivation, but it's very mathematical, and that's why you usually don't find it in textbooks about SRT:

Assuming only the special principle of relativity, the existence of inertial frames, and the "Euclidicity" of the space wrt. to any inertial observer, leads to two possible spacetimes, i.e., Galilei-Newton or Einstein-Minkowski spacetime.
Really? I have seen it in several textbooks (at least in one of Rindler's books that I remember off the top of my head) and it is the way I usually like to introduce it - although I gloss over some points rather quickly - in class. However, I would agree that this is not the approach taken in most "modern physics" treatments, which would be in the first two years of university and a more superficial treatment.
 
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  • #100
Well, if you just tell your students how the Lorentz transformation looks without any physical nor mathematical argument, I'm pretty sure they'll miss the whole point why to introduce relativity to begin with. As I said, for the introductory course, I'd use a less mathematical more physical derivation like the one by Einstein of 1907:

https://einsteinpapers.press.princeton.edu/vol2-trans/266
 
  • #101
Orodruin said:
Really? I have seen it in several textbooks (at least in one of Rindler's books that I remember off the top of my head) and it is the way I usually like to introduce it - although I gloss over some points rather quickly - in class. However, I would agree that this is not the approach taken in most "modern physics" treatments, which would be in the first two years of university and a more superficial treatment.
Interesting. I should read Rindler's book in more detail. I was aware about this derivation only through the artikel by Frank et al from 1911, which was cited in some Am. Jour. Phys. article (I forgot which one). Thanks for the hint anyway.
 
  • #102
vanhees71 said:
Well, if you just tell your students how the Lorentz transformation looks without any physical nor mathematical argument, I'm pretty sure they'll miss the whole point why to introduce relativity to begin with.
Certainly, that practice should be frowned upon. A common way of a more "light" introduction is to first derive time dilation and length contraction and then use them to derive the Lorentz transformations using different constructions. We do it that way in an introductory online course that I developed for the department a few years back.

vanhees71 said:
Interesting. I should read Rindler's book in more detail.
If I remember correctly, he starts with a (rather hand-waving) argument to conclude that the transformation must be linear and the relative velocity to be ##v## to further reduce it somewhat. Then he first assumes ##t' = t## to get the Galilei transformation and later that ##c## is invariant to get the Lorentz transformation. (This is what he does in "Introduction to Special Relativity", I do not know what he does in "Relativity: Special, General, and Cosmological".)
 
  • #103
Orodruin said:
Certainly, that practice should be frowned upon. A common way of a more "light" introduction is to first derive time dilation and length contraction and then use them to derive the Lorentz transformations using different constructions. We do it that way in an introductory online course that I developed for the department a few years back.
I would strongly disagree about TD and LC. We are witness pretty much daily here to casualties of that approach. You end up with people who don't know what (me or you) is dilated, think that clocks really change their speed, and try to do SR and GR problems with Newtonian equations and ##\gamma##.

The problem IMO is premature simplification; the Lorentz Transform is the product of ##\gamma## with a 2x2 matrix. Lose the matrix and it doesn't surprise me in the slightest that newbies find the concept of simultaneity a problem.

That is the motivation behind my approach in #98. It gives the right answers (eg. the twin paradox, which is nothing more than three spacetime intervals joined up) most simply, which enables the "tricky" stuff like TD, LC to be postponed (perhaps indefinitely, as they are rarely used to calculate anything but muons!) until students have the mathematics to see what they really mean (again, not much IMO), and to get the right answers for themselves.
 
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  • #104
The trick by Einstein in 1907 was not to first derive time dilation and length contraction first (which is of course also a nice probability, I remember from my high school textbook "Metzler Physik") and then the Lorentz transformation, but the other way around. The math is much simpler in Einstein's derivation and straighter to the point.

In my SRT FAQ article I shortened this even further by just using Minkowski space-time geometry right away.

https://th.physik.uni-frankfurt.de/~hees/pf-faq/srt.pdf
 
  • #105
m4r35n357 said:
... which enables the "tricky" stuff like TD, LC to be postponed (perhaps indefinitely, as they are rarely used to calculate anything but muons!)

Length contraction must be accounted for when transforming densities between frames.
 

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