- #1
mateomy
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Boas Ch. 8, Sec. 10 #3
Use the convolution integral to find the inverse transforms of:
[tex]
\frac{p}{(p^{2}-1)^{2}} = \frac{p}{p^{2}-1} \frac{1}{p^{2}-1}
[/tex]
I'm completely confused with these things. Are we supposed to figure out the inverse Laplace transform and then use that within our convolution integral? I am completely lost. Just looking for some advice, thanks.
I know the convolution integral takes the form of:
[tex]
\int_{-\infty}^\infty\,f(x)g(z-x)dx
[/tex]
Use the convolution integral to find the inverse transforms of:
[tex]
\frac{p}{(p^{2}-1)^{2}} = \frac{p}{p^{2}-1} \frac{1}{p^{2}-1}
[/tex]
I'm completely confused with these things. Are we supposed to figure out the inverse Laplace transform and then use that within our convolution integral? I am completely lost. Just looking for some advice, thanks.
I know the convolution integral takes the form of:
[tex]
\int_{-\infty}^\infty\,f(x)g(z-x)dx
[/tex]