Showing two sets are equivalent

In summary, the task is to show that the set of all real numbers is equivalent to the set of all positive real numbers. The relevant equation is finding a bijection such as F: R -> R+ . The attempted solution using the tangent function was not successful. However, the function F: R -> R+ , F(x) = x^2 was suggested as an isomorphism. After further discussion, it was determined that this function is not a bijection. Finally, the function y = ex was proposed as a solution and it was acknowledged as a successful bijection.
  • #1
hwill205
11
0

Homework Statement



Show that R [tex]\approx[/tex] R+ , that is, the set of all real numbers is equivalent to the set of all positive real numbers


Homework Equations



The only relevant equation is finding one such that F:R[tex]\rightarrow[/tex]R+ is a bijection.

The Attempt at a Solution



I've attempted to use the tangent function as a bijection, but that doesn't work. This isn't for homework but for a test review sheet, so all guidance is gladly appreciated.
 
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  • #2
Equivalent? You could probably show that the sets are isomorphic by finding an isomorphism. The function:
[tex]F: \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R}^+[/tex]
[tex]F:x \to x^2[/tex]
would map the real numbers into positive real numbers. I should think F is an isomorphism over these sets.
 
  • #3
But that isn't a bijection as its not one-to-one. For example, -5 maps to 25 and 5 maps to 25. If I can find a bijection from R to R+ ,then I've proven they are equivalent sets. Just can't find the darn bijection.
 
  • #4
Hi hwill205:smile:

You should think of exponential functions...
 
  • #5
Damn, y=ex works. Thanks a lot man. Can't believe I didn't think of that.
 
  • #6
hwill205 said:
But that isn't a bijection as its not one-to-one. For example, -5 maps to 25 and 5 maps to 25. If I can find a bijection from R to R+ ,then I've proven they are equivalent sets. Just can't find the darn bijection.

Oh, of course. That + sign made me think of positive real numbers, and I messed up codomain and domain. :(
 

Related to Showing two sets are equivalent

1. How do you show that two sets are equivalent?

Two sets are considered equivalent if they have the same number of elements or if there is a one-to-one correspondence between the elements of the two sets. This means that each element in one set has a unique matching element in the other set, and vice versa.

2. What is the process for proving equivalence between two sets?

The most common method for proving equivalence between two sets is by using a bijection, which is a function that maps each element in one set to a unique element in the other set. This one-to-one correspondence shows that the sets have the same number of elements and are therefore equivalent.

3. Can two sets be equivalent if they have different types of elements?

Yes, two sets can still be equivalent even if they have different types of elements. As long as there is a one-to-one correspondence between the elements of the two sets, they are considered equivalent.

4. Are there other ways to show that two sets are equivalent besides using a bijection?

Yes, there are other methods for proving equivalence between two sets. These include using an injection, which only requires that each element in the first set has a unique matching element in the second set, and using a surjection, which only requires that each element in the second set has a matching element in the first set.

5. What does it mean if two sets are not equivalent?

If two sets are not equivalent, it means that there is not a one-to-one correspondence between their elements. This could be due to one set having more elements than the other or because some elements do not have a matching counterpart in the other set. In this case, the sets are considered unequal or not equivalent.

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