- #1
AcidRainLiTE
- 90
- 2
I was just looking at wikipedia's article on ring homomorphisms (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ring_homomorphism) and I am a little confused.
If you look at the definition they give for ring homomorphism, they require only that addition and multiplication is preserved over the homomorphism (and not that it maps 1 to 1'). Then, under the 'Properties' section, the third bullet down claims:
Don't you need to explicitly require that the homomorphism maps 1 to 1' in order for that statement to be true? Or is there someway to deduce this without specifying that requirement?
If you look at the definition they give for ring homomorphism, they require only that addition and multiplication is preserved over the homomorphism (and not that it maps 1 to 1'). Then, under the 'Properties' section, the third bullet down claims:
If a has a multiplicative inverse in R, then f(a) has a multiplicative inverse in S and we have f(a−1) = (f(a))−1. Therefore, f induces a group homomorphism from the (multiplicative) group of units of R to the (multiplicative) group of units of S.
Don't you need to explicitly require that the homomorphism maps 1 to 1' in order for that statement to be true? Or is there someway to deduce this without specifying that requirement?