- #1
RealKiller69
- 11
- 1
I have got a simple qstion.
We have a particle in 1d oscillator with E0( fundamental level).We know that phi~ e^-x^2 for any x, so We can measure a position and get a value x=a, such that V(a)>E0 . In this case T<0 so the velocity of the particle is imaginary, how is this even possible?, (a real particle moving an imaginary velocity.)
We have a particle in 1d oscillator with E0( fundamental level).We know that phi~ e^-x^2 for any x, so We can measure a position and get a value x=a, such that V(a)>E0 . In this case T<0 so the velocity of the particle is imaginary, how is this even possible?, (a real particle moving an imaginary velocity.)