- #1
trenekas
- 61
- 0
Hi all. My task is to prove the property of covariance function:
##(r(n)-r(m))^2≤2r(0)(r(0-r(n-m)))##
My solution:
##1) (r(n)-r(m))^2=r(n)^2-2r(n)r(m)+r(m)^2##
##2) 2r(0)(r(0)-r(n-m)))=2r(0)^2-2r(0)r(n-m)##
From covariance function properties I know that ##2r(0)^2≥r(n)^2+r(m)^2##
So now I just need to prove that ##r(0)r(n-m)≤r(n)r(m)##
But don't know how to do that. Any thoughts? I'm not sure, maybe my way of solution is bad and I need to find other one. Any help would be appreciate.
##(r(n)-r(m))^2≤2r(0)(r(0-r(n-m)))##
My solution:
##1) (r(n)-r(m))^2=r(n)^2-2r(n)r(m)+r(m)^2##
##2) 2r(0)(r(0)-r(n-m)))=2r(0)^2-2r(0)r(n-m)##
From covariance function properties I know that ##2r(0)^2≥r(n)^2+r(m)^2##
So now I just need to prove that ##r(0)r(n-m)≤r(n)r(m)##
But don't know how to do that. Any thoughts? I'm not sure, maybe my way of solution is bad and I need to find other one. Any help would be appreciate.