Product of quadratic nonresidues is a residue

In summary, a quadratic residue is a number that when multiplied by itself, produces a number that is a power of two. This is easy to prove by contradiction, as any integer that is not a residue is a power of two. Homework statement: Prove that if p is prime, then if A is a quadratic nonresidue mod p and B is also a quadratic nonresidue mod p, then AB is a quadratic residue mod p. This can be done by induction on the residue of A.
  • #1
Broccoli21
80
1

Homework Statement


Prove that if p is prime, then if A is a quadratic nonresidue mod p and B is also a quadratic nonresidue mod p, then AB is a quadratic residue mod p.

Homework Equations


A is a nonresidue means A = x^2 (mod p) has no solutions

The Attempt at a Solution


I already proved that product of two residues is a residue, and that a residue and a nonresidue make a nonresidue. Also it's easy to prove by contradiction that 1/A (which always exists because p is prime) is a residue iff A is a residue.

Now as for the given question, I have actually solved it using group theory, but the class requires a proof from elementary principles. We have not covered the legendre symbol either. My proof is this:

the integers Z_p={0...p-1} form a cyclic group under multiplication, and thus have a generator g. So any integer in Z_p can be written as a power of g, so the residues are even powers and the nonresidues are odd powers. So A=g^odd and B=g^odd so AB=g^odd+odd=g^even so AB is a residue.

I can't seem to extend this to an elementary proof (using congruences and whatnot) though, and can't even see a way to start. :frown:

Thanks in advance!
 
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  • #2
Broccoli21 said:
the integers Z_p={0...p-1} form a cyclic group under multiplication

This is not true.

[itex]\mathbb{Z}_p\setminus \{0\}[/itex] is a cyclic group though.

What can you use?? Can you use Fermat's little theorem?
 
  • #3
micromass said:
This is not true.

[itex]\mathbb{Z}_p\setminus \{0\}[/itex] is a cyclic group though.

What can you use?? Can you use Fermat's little theorem?

Oh thanks for catching that. Yeah I suppose that doesn't work. Using fermat's little theorem, we know that:

a = a^p (mod p)
b = b^p (mod p)
ab = (ab)^p (mod p)

but here, I can't really see how to proceed. How do I use the fact they a and b are non-residues?

If we let q=(p-1)/2, we also get an integer such that

(ab)^2q = 1 (mod p)

but this ultimately seems to get going nowhere :|
sorry that I can't seem to see where to apply the given conditions
 
  • #4
Do you know that a is a quadratic residue iff [itex]a^{(p-1)/2}=1[/itex] (mod p) and -1 otherwise??
 
  • #5
I am not aware of that theorem. I managed to prove that if a is a residue, then indeed:
(everything below is mod p)
a = x^2
hence:
a^(p-1)/2 = x^p-1 = 1
to prove the opposite direction, assume that a^(p-1)/2 = 1. Then:
I can't seem to prove that in this case, a is a residue. However I did that, then because we can factor fermat's little theorem:
0 = (a^(p-1)/2 -1)(a^(p-1)/2 +1)
, the only two possible values for a^(p-1)/2 are +1 and -1 so I would be done, and this statement would imply the result of the original problem.

However I don't know how to prove that a^(p-1)/2 = 1 implies that a is a residue. Thanks for the help so far, by the way!
 
  • #6
Hmmm, I see no other proof than using that there exists an element g such that all integers x with gcd(x,p)=1 can be written as [itex]g^n=x[/itex] (mod p) for a certain n. But this is not a basic result.
 
  • #7
I think I might have solved it. Can you check if this works?
suppose a is a quadratic nonresidue
We know in general that if:
cb=db
then
b(c−d)=0
so c=d.

Thus for b∈{1,...,p−1}, {b,2b,...,(p−1)b} is {1,...,p−1} rearranged modulo p, and for all b∈{1,...,p−1}, there is exactly one c∈{1,...,p−1} such that cb=a (mod p of course). We also note that if c=b, then c=1 or c=p-1 so since a is not a residue, c=/=b.

Thus we partition the set {1,...,p−1} into pairs with that property. Now notice that the product:

(1)(2)...(p-1)=(p-1)! contains all of these pairs, of which there are (p-1)/2.
So
(p-1)! = a^(p-1)/2

but another way to look at (p-1)! is that we can group all the numbers in a similar fashion as before, but now with cb=1. But remember that c=b iff c=1 or c=p-1. So ignore those and compute the product:

(2)(3)...(p-2)=(p-2)! = 1

now multiply by p-1:

(p-1)! = p-1 = -1.

so if we go back to equation 1), we see

a^(p-1)/2 = -1, the desired result for nonresidues.

Does this work?
 
  • #8
That seems correct. Very, very nice solution!
 
  • #9
Thanks Micromass!
 

Related to Product of quadratic nonresidues is a residue

1. What is a quadratic nonresidue?

A quadratic nonresidue is an integer that cannot be expressed as the square of any other integer.

2. What is a residue?

A residue is an integer that can be expressed as the square of another integer.

3. Why is the product of two quadratic nonresidues always a residue?

This is because when two quadratic nonresidues are multiplied together, the resulting number can always be expressed as the square of the product of the two nonresidues, making it a residue.

4. Can the product of two quadratic residues be a nonresidue?

No, the product of two quadratic residues will always be a residue. This is because the product of any two residues will always be a residue.

5. What are the practical applications of understanding the product of quadratic nonresidues and residues?

This concept is commonly used in cryptography and number theory, as it can help determine the solvability of certain equations and the security of certain encryption methods.

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