- #1
geor
- 35
- 0
Hello,
Excuse me if I ask something obvious here, but I can't
prove it..
Say R is a ring and M an R-module.
So, 0 \in M as M is an abelian group.
I guess r0=0, no?!
Can you tell me how we prove that?
Again, sorry if I ask something obvious..
Excuse me if I ask something obvious here, but I can't
prove it..
Say R is a ring and M an R-module.
So, 0 \in M as M is an abelian group.
I guess r0=0, no?!
Can you tell me how we prove that?
Again, sorry if I ask something obvious..