- #1
epkid08
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Two objects lie motionless in an isolated frame. One object accelerates to a speed v, then then holds that speed for an amount of time t. This causes the accelerated object to travel a time [tex]t_s[/tex] into the still motionless object's future.
[tex]v=\frac{c\sqrt{t_s^2+2t_st}}{(t_s+t)}[/tex]
If you're wondering I defined [tex]t_s[/tex], time skipped into motionless object's future, equal to [tex]t_c-t_p[/tex], coordinate time minus proper time. Solve for coordinate time, and plug it into the time dilation equation. Then solve for v.
This seems like it would have multiple applications for various preserving/maturing things i.e. foods, alcohol in our world.
Has anyone seen this before? Is it correct? Is it applied in our world today?
Also a question that is not about this topic.
Theoretically, if an object is motionless in a vacuum with 0 forces acting on it, does it experience time? Apparently, most people view time as a philosophical thing more than anything, but furthermore a consequence of motion. So my question is just that, is time just a consequence of motion?
[tex]v=\frac{c\sqrt{t_s^2+2t_st}}{(t_s+t)}[/tex]
If you're wondering I defined [tex]t_s[/tex], time skipped into motionless object's future, equal to [tex]t_c-t_p[/tex], coordinate time minus proper time. Solve for coordinate time, and plug it into the time dilation equation. Then solve for v.
This seems like it would have multiple applications for various preserving/maturing things i.e. foods, alcohol in our world.
Has anyone seen this before? Is it correct? Is it applied in our world today?
Also a question that is not about this topic.
Theoretically, if an object is motionless in a vacuum with 0 forces acting on it, does it experience time? Apparently, most people view time as a philosophical thing more than anything, but furthermore a consequence of motion. So my question is just that, is time just a consequence of motion?