- #1
flyingpig
- 2,579
- 1
Say I have a primal LOP K and a dual LOP D
If D is bounded, which means it is feasible, does that mean P is also bounded?
Because if P is unbounded, then D is infeasible
Likewise if D is unbounded, P is infeasible
So D is bounded, P is feasible? Make sense?
If D is bounded, which means it is feasible, does that mean P is also bounded?
Because if P is unbounded, then D is infeasible
Likewise if D is unbounded, P is infeasible
So D is bounded, P is feasible? Make sense?