Integrating cos(x)cos(nx): Zero or Non-Zero?

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In summary, the integral \int^{2\pi}_0{cos(x)cos(nx)dx} has a solution of 0 for all values of n, except for n=1 where it has a solution of π. The incorrect step in the attempted solution was using the incorrect substitution, which resulted in a wrong solution. It is also important to remember that the integral of cos^2 x is π.
  • #1
swarog46
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Homework Statement


[itex]\int^{2\pi}_0{cos(x)cos(nx)dx}=?,n\in Z[/itex]


Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution


I think that this eq has zero solve. However my teacher says that its incorrect.

[itex]cos(x) cos(nx) = 1/2 (cos (x-nx) + cos (x+nx))[/itex]
[itex]\int^{2\pi}_0{cos(x)cos(nx)dx}=\frac{1}{2n}(sin(2 \pi (1-n))+sin(2 \pi (1+n)))[/itex] which gives 0 for n=1, but when i give n=1 before start integrating, then I've got non zero solve.
 
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  • #2
Hi swarog46, welcome to PF! :biggrin:

swarog46 said:
[itex]\int^{2\pi}_0{cos(x)cos(nx)dx}=\frac{1}{2n}(sin(2 \pi (1-n))+sin(2 \pi (1+n)))[/itex]

The step in the quote is wrong. How did you do this? Try substitution of cos(1-n)x = t? and similarly for the other term? This will give you a (n-1) and (n+1) in the denominator. Recheck that step :smile:PS : I believe by 'zero solve' you mean zero as the solution...
 
  • #3
of course i mean that=)

Whatever in the result for n=1 i get \int=0.
and for [itex] \int^{2\pi}_0{cos(x)cos(1*x)dx}=\int^{2\pi}_0{cos^{2}(x)}=\pi [/itex]
 
  • #4
Did you read this?

Infinitum said:
The step in the quote is wrong. How did you do this? Try substitution of cos(1-n)x = t? and similarly for the other term? This will give you a (n-1) and (n+1) in the denominator. Recheck that step :smile:

Your integral itself is incorrect.
 
  • #5
One way to believe this, is that for n>1, cos(nx) is "even" about the midpoint ∏, while cos(x) is "odd" about the midpoint ∏, so it integrates to zero.

Also [itex]\int \sin^2x+\cos^2x=\int 1[/itex], which is a quick way to rememeber your integral of [itex]\cos^2 x[/itex] is ∏.
 

Related to Integrating cos(x)cos(nx): Zero or Non-Zero?

1. What is the purpose of integrating cos(x)cos(nx)?

The purpose of integrating cos(x)cos(nx) is to find the area under the curve of the product of two cosine functions. This can be useful in many applications, such as calculating work done by a varying force or determining the displacement of a vibrating object.

2. Is the integral of cos(x)cos(nx) always zero?

No, the integral of cos(x)cos(nx) is not always zero. It depends on the values of x and n. If x and n are both even or both odd, the integral will be non-zero. However, if one is even and the other is odd, the integral will be zero.

3. How do you determine if the integral of cos(x)cos(nx) is zero or non-zero?

To determine if the integral of cos(x)cos(nx) is zero or non-zero, you can use the property of cosine functions that states cos(x)cos(y) = 1/2(cos(x+y) + cos(x-y)). If the values of x and n are such that the resulting argument of cosine is an odd multiple of pi, then the integral will be zero. Otherwise, it will be non-zero.

4. Can the integral of cos(x)cos(nx) ever be negative?

Yes, the integral of cos(x)cos(nx) can be negative. This occurs when the values of x and n are such that the resulting argument of cosine is in the third or fourth quadrant, where cosine is negative. In this case, the area under the curve will be negative, resulting in a negative integral value.

5. Are there any special cases where the integral of cos(x)cos(nx) is always zero or non-zero?

Yes, there are special cases where the integral of cos(x)cos(nx) is always zero or non-zero. If n is equal to 1, the integral will always be zero. Additionally, if n is equal to 0, the integral will always be non-zero. This is because the integral becomes cos(x) which is always non-zero.

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