Integral of 1/(x*ln(x)) converging or diverging?

In summary, the conversation discusses different approaches for finding the integral of 1/(x*ln(x)) dx, ultimately concluding that the improper integral with lower limit 2 and upper limit infinity diverges.
  • #1
ndnbolla
19
0
In order to find the integral of 1/(x*ln(x)) dx, I tried using the substitution method where

u = 1/x and dv = 1/ln(x) dx .

Then du = ln(x) dx.

However this is where I got stuck.

What would v equal? Or is their another way I should be approaching this integral in order to find if it is diverging or converging and if converging, to what value?
 
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  • #2
First of all, is it a definite integral? What are the limits of integration?

Then, if u=1/x then du is not ln(x) dx. Why don't you try the substitution u=ln(x) and see what happens?
 
  • #3
My mistake and sorry for not mentioning the limits. Its an improper integral with lower limit 2 and upper limit infinity.

I think I found the solution...

u=ln(x)
du=(1/x)

int(1/u) du

And then solve for the integral, with the lower limit being ln(2) and the upper limit being infinity.

It ends up diverging, correct?
 
  • #4
Yes, I think you're right.
 

Related to Integral of 1/(x*ln(x)) converging or diverging?

What is the integral of 1/(x*ln(x))?

The integral of 1/(x*ln(x)) is given by ln(ln(x)) + C, where C is the constant of integration.

What is the domain of the function 1/(x*ln(x))?

The domain of the function 1/(x*ln(x)) is (0, ∞), as the function is undefined at x = 0 and approaches infinity as x approaches infinity.

Does the integral of 1/(x*ln(x)) converge or diverge?

The integral of 1/(x*ln(x)) converges, as ln(ln(x)) approaches infinity as x approaches infinity, and therefore the integral does not have a finite limit.

What is the limit of the integral of 1/(x*ln(x)) as x approaches infinity?

The limit of the integral of 1/(x*ln(x)) as x approaches infinity is infinity, as ln(ln(x)) approaches infinity as x approaches infinity.

Can the integral of 1/(x*ln(x)) be solved using substitution?

Yes, the integral of 1/(x*ln(x)) can be solved using substitution by letting u = ln(x) and du = 1/x dx. This results in the integral becoming ∫1/u du, which is equal to ln(u) + C, or ln(ln(x)) + C.

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