If f(a)=g(a) and f'(x)>g'(x) for all x, use MVT to prove f(x)>g(x)

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In summary: I think I'm on the right track here?For all t in (a,x), h(t) = f(t) - g(t)h'(c) =\frac{f(x) - f(a) - g(x) + g(a)}{x - a} > 0h'(c) =\frac{f(t) - g(t) - (f(a) - g(a))}{t - a} > 0h(t) > 0 for all t>a Which means that h(x) > h(a) for all x>a. Since h(a) = 0 (f(a) = g(a)), then h(x) > 0 for all x>a.
  • #1
NWeid1
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1. Homework Statement
Give a graphical argument that if f(a)=g(a) and f'(x)>g'(x) for all x>a, then f(x)>g(x) for all x>a. Use the Mean Value Theorem to prove it.


2. Homework Equations



3. The Attempt at a Solution
I have sketched a graphical argument to show that f(x)>g(x). Then I applied the MVT and got

[tex]f'(c)=\frac{f(b) - f(a)}{b - a} > g'(c)=\frac{g(b) - g(a)}{b - a}[/tex]
[tex]-f'(c)(b - a) + f(b) = f(a) > -g'(c)(b - a) + g(b) = g(a)[/tex]
But now I'm stuck and don't know how to get to f(x) > g(x).
 

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  • #2
NWeid1 said:
1. Homework Statement
Give a graphical argument that if f(a)=g(a) and f'(x)>g'(x) for all x>a, then f(x)>g(x) for all x>a. Use the Mean Value Theorem to prove it.


2. Homework Equations



3. The Attempt at a Solution
I have sketched a graphical argument to show that f(x)>g(x). Then I applied the MVT and got

[tex]f'(c)=\frac{f(b) - f(a)}{b - a} > g'(c)=\frac{g(b) - g(a)}{b - a}[/tex]
[tex]-f'(c)(b - a) + f(b) = f(a) > -g'(c)(b - a) + g(b) = g(a)[/tex]
But now I'm stuck and don't know how to get to f(x) > g(x).

Much better!

Let h(x) = f(x) - g(x).

Then h'(x) = f'(x) - g'(x) > 0 for any x > a.

Now apply the MVT on the interval [a, x].
 
  • #3
So.. h'(c) = (h(x) - h(a))/(x -a) ?
 
  • #4
And then
[tex]h'(c) =\frac{f(x) - f(a) - g(x) + g(a)}{x - a} > 0[/tex]
[tex]h'(c) =f(x) - f(a) - g(x) + g(a) > 0[/tex]
[tex]h'(c) =f(x) - f(a) > g(x) - g(a)[/tex]
[tex]h'(c) =\frac{f(x) - f(a)}{x-a} > \frac{g(x) - g(a)}{x-a}[/tex]
==> h'(c) = f(x) > g(x)
==> f(x) > f(x) for all x>a
I feel like this is wrong?
 
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  • #5
NWeid1 said:
And then
[tex]h'(c) =\frac{f(x) - f(a) - g(x) + g(a)}{x - a} > 0[/tex]
[tex]h'(c) =f(x) - f(a) - g(x) + g(a) > 0[/tex]
[tex]h'(c) =f(x) - f(a) > g(x) - g(a)[/tex]
[tex]h'(c) =\frac{f(x) - f(a)}{x-a} > \frac{g(x) - g(a)}{x-a}[/tex]
==> h'(c) = f(x) > g(x)
==> f(x) > f(x) for all x>a
I feel like this is wrong?

For starters, h'(c) [itex]\neq[/itex] f(x), and f(x) is not larger than itself.

Since h'(x) > 0 for x > a, then h'(c) > 0 if c > a. (c comes from the MVT.)

This implies that

[tex]h'(c) =\frac{f(x) - f(a) - g(x) + g(a)}{x - a} > 0[/tex]
[tex]\Rightarrow h'(c) =\frac{f(x) - g(x) - (f(a) - g(a))}{x - a} > 0[/tex]
Can you work with this to say something about f(x) - g(x)?
 
  • #6
As I said in the other thread, the equalities that start with h'(c)= don't make much sense. A single number h'(c) can't be equal to several different numbers.

Start by writing down exactly what the MVT says about the function h=f-g on the interval [a,x]. Don't just write down the equality that's a part of the statement. Write down the full statement. If you choose to use the symbol c for the the same thing as before, then the next step is to prove that h'(c)>0. When you have done that, we can start talking about how to proceed from there.
 
  • #7
Mark44: I meant to say f(x) > g(x) lol. But anyways.. if
[tex]h'(c) =\frac{f(x) - f(a) - g(x) + g(a)}{x - a} > 0[/tex]
[tex]\Rightarrow h'(c) =\frac{f(x) - g(x) - (f(a) - g(a))}{x - a} > 0[/tex]

would it mean that

[tex] h'(c) = f'(c) - g'(c) > 0[/tex] ??
 
  • #8
Fredrik: The MVT says that if h(x) is continuous and differentiable, then there will exist a c on [a,x] such that

[tex]h'(c) =\frac{h(x) -h(a)}{x - a}[/tex]

And now how do I prove it to be >0?
 
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  • #9
That's essentially correct, but there are some minor inaccuracies. I'm going to nitpick those details before I answer your question. A function is continuous at every point where it's differentiable, so it sounds a bit strange to say that h is continuous and differentiable. The MVT applies to functions on [a,x] that are differentiable on the open interval (a,x) and continuous on the closed interval [a,x]. According to Wikipedia, that "c" is a member of the open interval (a,x). I wouldn't call "h(x)" a function. h is the function, and h(x) is an element of the range of h.

The proof that h'(c)>0 is very easy. You just need to remember how you defined h, and what exactly you have assumed about f and g. The proof starts with "For all t in (a,x), h(t)=..." Can you take it from here?

Once you have proved that, you only need to think about what the things you have proved so far tell you about h(x). (Note that if I say "h(x)" I never mean the function h. I mean the value of h at x, where x is the right endpoint of the interval we're considering).
 
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Related to If f(a)=g(a) and f'(x)>g'(x) for all x, use MVT to prove f(x)>g(x)

1. What is the MVT (Mean Value Theorem) and how does it relate to the given statement?

The MVT is a fundamental theorem in calculus that states that for any continuous function f on a closed interval [a,b] that is differentiable on the open interval (a,b), there exists a point c in (a,b) where the slope of the tangent line at c is equal to the average rate of change of f over the interval [a,b]. In this case, the MVT is being used to prove the inequality between the two functions f(x) and g(x).

2. Can you provide a brief explanation of why f(a) and g(a) must be equal for the given statement to hold?

Since f(a) and g(a) are both evaluated at the same point a, they represent the same y-value on the graph. This is important for the MVT to hold, as it requires the function to be continuous on the closed interval [a,b]. If f(a) and g(a) were not equal, the MVT would not be applicable.

3. How does the fact that f'(x) is greater than g'(x) for all x relate to the MVT?

Since the derivative represents the instantaneous rate of change of a function, the fact that f'(x) is greater than g'(x) for all x means that the slope of the tangent line for f(x) is consistently steeper than the slope of the tangent line for g(x). This is important for the MVT to hold, as it guarantees that there is no point on the graph where the slope of f(x) is equal to the slope of g(x), making the inequality f(x) > g(x) true for all points in the interval [a,b].

4. Is the given statement true for all x in the interval [a,b] or just at the point c where the MVT applies?

The given statement is true for all x in the interval [a,b], not just at the point c where the MVT applies. This is because the MVT guarantees that the slope of the tangent line at c is equal to the average rate of change of the function over the entire interval [a,b], not just at the point c. Therefore, the inequality f(x) > g(x) holds for all x in the interval [a,b].

5. How does the MVT help to prove the inequality between f(x) and g(x)?

The MVT serves as a bridge between the instantaneous rate of change of a function and the average rate of change of the function over a given interval. By establishing that the slope of the tangent line at some point c must be equal to the average rate of change of the function over the interval [a,b], the MVT shows that the function must be consistently increasing (or decreasing) over the interval. This, in turn, proves the inequality f(x) > g(x) for all x in the interval [a,b].

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