- #1
numbthenoob
- 10
- 0
Hi,
Can anyone confirm for me whether it has been proven that:
if a number is congruent to 1 mod 4 and is expressed as the product of two factors, the difference between those factors will always be congruent to 0 mod 4; and that if the number is congruent to 3 mod 4 the difference between two factors is congruent to 2 mod 4.
If it has been proven, or I suppose even researched, what do I google to read up on it?
I can't find a counterexample and I can't figure out why it is and it's driving me nuts. Why does 4 have this predictive property and other divisors don't?
Thanks much.
Can anyone confirm for me whether it has been proven that:
if a number is congruent to 1 mod 4 and is expressed as the product of two factors, the difference between those factors will always be congruent to 0 mod 4; and that if the number is congruent to 3 mod 4 the difference between two factors is congruent to 2 mod 4.
If it has been proven, or I suppose even researched, what do I google to read up on it?
I can't find a counterexample and I can't figure out why it is and it's driving me nuts. Why does 4 have this predictive property and other divisors don't?
Thanks much.