- #1
Cooojan
1.
2D -problem
A particle is moving on a frictionless, horizontal surface from ##O_{rigo}## with initial speed ## v_0 ##, as it faces the air resistance force ## F_R ##.2.
## F_R = -mαv ## (where v is a particle velocity)
## \frac {dv}{dt} + αv = 0 ##Show that:
## x(t) = \frac 1 α (v_0)(1-e^{-αt}) ##3.
So I menaged, somewhat, to complete this exercise, but I only come to this solution:
## x(t)=\frac1α(v_0)(-e^{-αt}) ##
Can somebody explain me, how does this missing ## "1" ## get there?
## a=-αv ##
## \frac{dv}{-αv}=dt ##
## -\frac1α\int{\frac1v}\,dv=∫dt ##
## e^{ln(v)} = e^{-αt+C_1} ##
## v=Ce^{-αt} ##
## v(t) = v_0e^{-αt} ##
## v(t)=\frac{dx}{dt} ##
## ∫dx=\int v \,dt ##
## x(t)=v_0 \int e^{-αt}\,dt ##
## x(t)=\frac1α(v_0)(-e^{-αt}) ##
But it should be
## x(t) = \frac 1 α (v_0)(1-e^{-αt}) ##
Tnx a lot. Any help would be very useful and much appriciated :)
####
2D -problem
A particle is moving on a frictionless, horizontal surface from ##O_{rigo}## with initial speed ## v_0 ##, as it faces the air resistance force ## F_R ##.2.
## F_R = -mαv ## (where v is a particle velocity)
## \frac {dv}{dt} + αv = 0 ##Show that:
## x(t) = \frac 1 α (v_0)(1-e^{-αt}) ##3.
So I menaged, somewhat, to complete this exercise, but I only come to this solution:
## x(t)=\frac1α(v_0)(-e^{-αt}) ##
Can somebody explain me, how does this missing ## "1" ## get there?
## a=-αv ##
## \frac{dv}{-αv}=dt ##
## -\frac1α\int{\frac1v}\,dv=∫dt ##
## e^{ln(v)} = e^{-αt+C_1} ##
## v=Ce^{-αt} ##
## v(t) = v_0e^{-αt} ##
## v(t)=\frac{dx}{dt} ##
## ∫dx=\int v \,dt ##
## x(t)=v_0 \int e^{-αt}\,dt ##
## x(t)=\frac1α(v_0)(-e^{-αt}) ##
But it should be
## x(t) = \frac 1 α (v_0)(1-e^{-αt}) ##
Tnx a lot. Any help would be very useful and much appriciated :)
####
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