- #1
EmilyRuck
- 136
- 6
Hello!
When considering the boundary conditions for the electromagnetic field [itex]\mathbf{E}, \mathbf{H}[/itex] on the surface of a Perfect Eletric Conductor we have:
The current density flows on the surface a PEC, so we can consider as an equivalent situation the superposition of [itex]\mathbf{J}_S[/itex] and its image current, which is exactly opposite of [itex]\mathbf{J}_S[/itex]: the net current is 0 (this argument is used in order to prove that an electric current flowing on a PEC does not radiate).
But doesn't this affect the boundary conditions on the magnetic field? If the current is zero, why the relative boundary condition is not written as [itex]0 = \mathbf{\hat{n}} \times \mathbf{H}[/itex]?!
Emily
When considering the boundary conditions for the electromagnetic field [itex]\mathbf{E}, \mathbf{H}[/itex] on the surface of a Perfect Eletric Conductor we have:
- [itex]\mathbf{E} \times \mathbf{\hat{n}} = 0[/itex]
- [itex]\mathbf{J}_S = \mathbf{\hat{n}} \times \mathbf{H}[/itex]
The current density flows on the surface a PEC, so we can consider as an equivalent situation the superposition of [itex]\mathbf{J}_S[/itex] and its image current, which is exactly opposite of [itex]\mathbf{J}_S[/itex]: the net current is 0 (this argument is used in order to prove that an electric current flowing on a PEC does not radiate).
But doesn't this affect the boundary conditions on the magnetic field? If the current is zero, why the relative boundary condition is not written as [itex]0 = \mathbf{\hat{n}} \times \mathbf{H}[/itex]?!
Emily