- #1
fabiogn
- 2
- 0
<< Mentor Note -- Thread moved from the technical forums,. so no HH Template is shown >>
Hello! I have a question on Electromagnetics.
Could anyone check if I am on the right track?
Here is the proposed problem:
Consider a spherically symmetric current distribution, which is radial and corresponds to the slow leak between the plates of a spherical capacitor. Considering now the magnetic flux B caused by this current, choose the right one:
Among the five alternatives there is one that affirms that the magnetic flux is zero outside and inside this capacitor because magnetic field lines never cross and always form closed paths.
Since I cannot figure out how the magnetic poles and field lines regarding the condition above described would be, (it would be like a monopole) I think that this alternative is the right one.
I also have found the text below, which reinforces my point of view:
"because since we have a completely spherically symmetric situation, it could only generate a spherically symmetric magnetic field. But the only possible such fields are one pointing outwards everywhere and one pointing inwards everywhere, both corresponding to non-existent monopoles. So, there can be no magnetic field" Has anyone seen this problem before? Am I right?
Many thanks in advance,
Best regards!
Fabio
Hello! I have a question on Electromagnetics.
Could anyone check if I am on the right track?
Here is the proposed problem:
Consider a spherically symmetric current distribution, which is radial and corresponds to the slow leak between the plates of a spherical capacitor. Considering now the magnetic flux B caused by this current, choose the right one:
Among the five alternatives there is one that affirms that the magnetic flux is zero outside and inside this capacitor because magnetic field lines never cross and always form closed paths.
Since I cannot figure out how the magnetic poles and field lines regarding the condition above described would be, (it would be like a monopole) I think that this alternative is the right one.
I also have found the text below, which reinforces my point of view:
"because since we have a completely spherically symmetric situation, it could only generate a spherically symmetric magnetic field. But the only possible such fields are one pointing outwards everywhere and one pointing inwards everywhere, both corresponding to non-existent monopoles. So, there can be no magnetic field" Has anyone seen this problem before? Am I right?
Many thanks in advance,
Best regards!
Fabio
Last edited by a moderator: