Sep 10, 2013 Thread starter #1 D dwsmith Well-known member Feb 1, 2012 1,673 $\newcommand{\unit}[1]{\hat{\mathbf{#1}}}$ Let $\varphi = F_1h_1$ and $\mathbf{v} = \frac{\unit{u}_1}{h_1}$. Why is $\varphi\nabla\times\mathbf{v} = 0$ but $\nabla\varphi\times\mathbf{v}$ not?
$\newcommand{\unit}[1]{\hat{\mathbf{#1}}}$ Let $\varphi = F_1h_1$ and $\mathbf{v} = \frac{\unit{u}_1}{h_1}$. Why is $\varphi\nabla\times\mathbf{v} = 0$ but $\nabla\varphi\times\mathbf{v}$ not?
Sep 10, 2013 Admin #2 Ackbach Indicium Physicus Staff member Jan 26, 2012 4,192 Of the symbols $F_{1}$, $h_{1}$, and $\hat{\mathbf{u}}_{1}$, which are variable, depending on position, and which are constant?
Of the symbols $F_{1}$, $h_{1}$, and $\hat{\mathbf{u}}_{1}$, which are variable, depending on position, and which are constant?
