A question about our prodominently matter universe.

In summary, the conversation discusses the theory of asymmetry between matter and anti-matter in the early universe, with a 1% favoring towards matter. This theory is supported by experimental verification through the production of 1% more muons than anti-muons in collisions between protons and anti-protons. The conversation also brings up the idea of directional spin in the singularity that produced the big bang and its potential impact on the production of matter and anti-matter. However, there are constraints on the momentum of vortexes in the early universe, and it was mostly homogeneous in the inflation period. Therefore, it is difficult to define the concept of "spin" in this context.
  • #1
Dappy
23
0
It was believed that at the big bang matter and anti-matter should have been produced in equal amounts which would have annihilated shortly after, leaving no matter or anti-matter.

A theory was developed which is now favoured that there was an asymmetry between the amount of matter to anti-matter produced in favour of matter by approximately 1%.

I read this morning that there is some experimental verification for this predicted amount with the collision of protons and anti-protons, which produce 1% more muons than anti-muons.

I have always been bias towards the asymmetry theory, not least because the big bang would have had to of produced 100 times the amount of matter that we see in our universe today, and 100 times the amount of anti-matter. The inflationary period starts to look messy.

I have wondered, if the singularity that produced the big bang had a directional spin, wouldn't the matter produced exhibit the same directional spin?

In other words, is it possible that whether we lived in a matter or anti-matter universe would depend upon the direction of spin of the singularity from whence our universe came?

Your thoughts please.
 
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  • #2
As singularity is not a point (in both closed and open-infinite universe scenarios), how can you define "spin"?

You can imagine only vortexes in early Universe, however, AFAIK, there are severe constrains on their momentum of them. Early Universe was very homogeneous towards the Big Bang. In most inflation scenarios, Universe was almost absolutely homogeneous (as it was empty in false vacuum era)
 

Related to A question about our prodominently matter universe.

1. What is the predominant matter in our universe?

The predominant matter in our universe is known as dark matter. This is a type of matter that does not interact with light and cannot be directly observed, but it makes up about 85% of the total matter in the universe.

2. How do we know that dark matter exists?

Scientists have observed the effects of dark matter on the movement of galaxies and the bending of light around massive objects. These observations, along with various theoretical models, support the existence of dark matter.

3. What is the role of dark matter in the formation of galaxies?

Dark matter played a crucial role in the formation of galaxies by providing the gravitational pull necessary for gas and dust to come together and form stars. Without dark matter, galaxies would not have been able to form as we see them today.

4. Is dark matter evenly distributed throughout the universe?

No, dark matter is not evenly distributed throughout the universe. It tends to clump together in areas where there is a higher density of normal matter. This is why we see galaxies and clusters of galaxies instead of just a uniform distribution of matter.

5. Can dark matter be detected or measured?

While dark matter itself cannot be directly detected or measured, scientists are able to indirectly study its effects through various methods such as gravitational lensing and galaxy rotation curves. Researchers are also working on developing new technologies and experiments to try and directly detect dark matter particles.

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