yes I understand that but why not, by the same reasoning, this is not applied on the other terms? (or maybe it is and I am not seeing it) i.e. why not
y \frac{\partial}{\partial z} \left( -x \frac {\partial \psi}{\partial z} \right ) = y \frac{\partial(-x)}{\partial z} \frac{\partial...
I am reading a proof of why
\left[ \hat{L}_x, \hat{L}_y \right ] = i \hbar \hat{L}_z
Given a wavefunction \psi,
\hat{L}_x, \hat{L}_y \psi = \left( -i\hbar \right)^2 \left( y \frac{\partial}{\partial z} - z \frac {\partial}{\partial y} \right ) \left (z \frac{\partial \psi}{\partial x} -...
So this only holds in uniform gravitational fields. Now Earth does not have a uniform gravitational field (since field lines are not parallel and tidal forces can be seen on earth). Then why do we need to correct our time on the GPS satellites due to general relativity if the slow running of...
Tidal Forces: "It arises because the gravitational force exerted by one body on another is not constant across it". which implicitly implies that the acceleration is not constant on that body.
Equivalence Principle: "weightlessness sensation occurs when one free falls in gravity" - which...
in simple 'Artistic' ways, Everything in life has an amount/magnitude, a bag of sand of 50kg is an example of an amount. however not everything in life has a direction. The 50kg sand bag does not have a direction where it could potentially go, that's non existent. However a push or a pull for...
If Einstein proved that light (a massless object) can be bent because of space-time. Then what happens to Newton's gravitation equation F = Gmm/r^2. Obviously this cannot apply to light, so technically this should fall completely, having both Newton's and Einsteins discovery working at the same...