Trouble with Wick rotation in 1+1d abelian Higgs model

In summary, when solving for instanton solutions in a 1+1d abelian Higgs model, it is convenient to work in Euclidean space using the substitution x^0 \rightarrow -ix_4^E,\quad x^1 \rightarrow x_1^E and the corresponding substitution for the covariant derivative. However, when performing the Wick rotation, the author seems to be getting a different result for the scalar kinetic term compared to what is seen in other sources. They are unsure of where they have made a mistake and are seeking help to figure it out. The conversation also touches on the importance of being careful with indices and their transformations.
  • #1
rgoerke
11
0
When solving for instanton solutions in a 1+1d abelian Higgs model, it's convenient to work in Euclidean space using the substitution
[tex]x^0 \rightarrow -ix_4^E,\quad x^1 \rightarrow x_1^E[/tex]
The corresponding substitution for the covariant derivative is
[tex]D^0 \rightarrow iD_4^E,\quad D^1 \rightarrow D_1^E[/tex]
Now, many sources will write out the Euclidean action that you get from this substitution, and I am able to reproduce the gauge kinetic term and the potential term, but I'm doing something stupid with the scalar kinetic term. In real space, we have
[tex]\frac{1}{2}\left(D_{\mu}\phi\right)^*\left(D^{\mu}\phi\right)[/tex]
doing the Wick rotation,
[tex]\frac{1}{2}\left(\left(D_0\phi\right)^*\left(D_0\phi\right) - \left(D_1\phi\right)^*\left(D_1\phi\right)\right)[/tex]
[tex]=\frac{1}{2}\left(\left(-iD_4^E\phi\right)^*\left(-iD_4^E\phi\right) - \left(D_1^E\phi\right)^*\left(D_1^E\phi\right)\right)[/tex]
[tex]=\frac{1}{2}\left((i)\left(D_4^E\phi\right)^*(-i)\left(D_4^E\phi\right) - \left(D_1^E\phi\right)^*\left(D_1^E\phi\right)\right)[/tex]
[tex]=\frac{1}{2}\left(\left(D_4^E\phi\right)^*\left(D_4^E\phi\right) - \left(D_1^E\phi\right)^*\left(D_1^E\phi\right)\right)[/tex]
but in order to reproduce what I see in various sources, I should be getting
[tex]-\frac{1}{2}\left|D_{\mu}^E\phi\right|^2[/tex]
[tex]=\frac{1}{2}\left(-\left(D_4^E\phi\right)^*\left(D_4^E\phi\right) - \left(D_1^E\phi\right)^*\left(D_1^E\phi\right)\right)[/tex]
This is a very straightforward process, clearly I am missing something very obvious or doing something completely wrong, but I've stared at this for a while and I'm just not sure what it is.

Thanks for you help!
 
Physics news on Phys.org
  • #2
How, after the Wick rotation, did you get from line 2 to line 3?
Should there be an extra -1 factor ?
 
  • #3
In addition to what Harry said, you should be careful with your up/down indices, depending on which convention you use you should pay attention to minus signs.
 
  • #4
Hi, thanks for your responses.

I'm getting from line 2 to 3 by taking the complex conjugate:
[tex]\left(-iD_0\phi\right)^* =(-i)^*\left(D_0\phi\right)^*=(i)\left(D_0\phi\right)^*[/tex]

As for indicies, I have tried to be as careful as possible; if you see a mistake please point it out.

This seems like a stupidly simple thing to get caught-up on, but I just can't figure out how this rotation to Euclidean space works.
 
  • #5
Well, you have $$D_{0}$$ and $$D^0$$, should they transform the same way (with the same sign)?
 
  • #6
...should they transform the same way (with the same sign)?

Yes, I believe so. In any case I don't really need to know explicitly how D^0 transforms since I can write everything in terms of D_0,
[tex]D_{\mu}D^{\mu} = g^{\mu\nu}D_{\mu}D_{\nu} = D_0D_0 - D_1D_1[/tex]
 

Related to Trouble with Wick rotation in 1+1d abelian Higgs model

1. What is the "Trouble with Wick rotation" in the 1+1d abelian Higgs model?

The "Trouble with Wick rotation" refers to an issue that arises when attempting to use Wick rotation, a mathematical technique used to analyze certain physical systems, on the 1+1d abelian Higgs model. It is a term used to describe the difficulty in obtaining physically meaningful results from the Wick rotated version of the model.

2. What is the 1+1d abelian Higgs model?

The 1+1d abelian Higgs model is a theoretical model used in particle physics to describe the behavior of a complex scalar field (Higgs field) interacting with a gauge field (photon) in two-dimensional spacetime. It is a simplified version of the more complex 3+1d abelian Higgs model.

3. Why is Wick rotation used in the 1+1d abelian Higgs model?

Wick rotation is used in the 1+1d abelian Higgs model as a mathematical tool to simplify the calculations and make them more tractable. It involves a transformation of the equations from real time to imaginary time, which can often lead to easier solutions.

4. What are some potential consequences of the "Trouble with Wick rotation" in the 1+1d abelian Higgs model?

The potential consequences of the "Trouble with Wick rotation" in the 1+1d abelian Higgs model include the inability to obtain physically meaningful results, as well as the possibility of incorrect or misleading conclusions being drawn from the model. This can have implications for our understanding of particle physics and the behavior of fundamental particles.

5. Is there a solution to the "Trouble with Wick rotation" in the 1+1d abelian Higgs model?

Currently, there is no known solution to the "Trouble with Wick rotation" in the 1+1d abelian Higgs model. However, researchers continue to explore different approaches and techniques in an attempt to overcome this issue and obtain reliable results from the model. It is an active area of research in theoretical physics.

Similar threads

Replies
3
Views
839
Replies
3
Views
498
Replies
24
Views
2K
  • Introductory Physics Homework Help
Replies
17
Views
454
  • Quantum Physics
Replies
4
Views
1K
Replies
3
Views
447
Replies
2
Views
992
Replies
11
Views
1K
Replies
4
Views
3K
  • Quantum Physics
Replies
2
Views
1K
Back
Top