Proving totally bounded sets are bounded.

In summary: Therefore, the empty set is totally bounded.In summary, the conversation discusses the proof that every totally bounded set in a metric space is bounded. The proof given in the conversation states that a set S is totally bounded and can be covered by finitely many balls of radius 1, making it bounded. However, it is pointed out that the converse may not be true in any metric space. The conversation also mentions the concept of the empty set being totally bounded and the definition of being totally bounded. It is concluded that the empty set is indeed totally bounded as it can be covered by a finite subset of itself, making it a finite subcover.
  • #1
gottfried
119
0

Homework Statement


Find the error in this proof and give an example in (ℝ,de) to illustrate where this proof breaks down.

Proof that every totally bounded set in a metric space is bounded.

The set S is totally bounded and can therefore be covered by finitely many balls of radius 1, say N balls of radius 1. Then S is a subset of any ball B(x,2N) provided X lies in S. Thus diam S≤4N so that S is bounded.

I can't see the fault in the proof and therefore don't know where to start when looking for an example in (ℝ,de) that illustrates how the proof breaks down.
Any suggestions?
 
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  • #2
A totally bounded set is bounded. The former is a stronger property than the latter. The converse may not be true in any metric space. I am not sure what ##(R, d_e)## means.
 
  • #3
What I mean by (R,de) is the set of real numbes with the euclidean metric. I understand that totally bounded is a stronger property and that a proof of this exists but I don't know what is wrong with the proof given in my first post. I'm trying to find out why this proof is sufficient.
 
  • #4
I suppose it breaks down for ##S## empty...
 
  • #5
That's interesting and hadn't occurred to me. Is the empty set totally bounded because it is a finite subcover of itself?
 
  • #6
Would any ball cover the empty set?
 
  • #7
Yes surely. But does there exists, for every r, a finite A contained in the empty set such that U{B(a,r);a in A} contains the empty set?
 
  • #8
How could anything be contained in the empty set? The only thing it contains as a subset is itself.
 
  • #9
Sure. So in my above message A would be the empty set then U{B(a,r): a in A} would also be the empty set and therefore A is in the empty set which is covered by U{B(a,r): a in A} . Making the empty set totally bounded?
 
  • #10
I am not sure what you are trying do. What is U{B(a, r) : a in A}? This is a union over what?

The empty set is totally bounded because of the reason given in #6, to which you said "yes surely".
 
  • #11
Ok cool.

The definition of being totally bounded that I have been given is that X is totally bounded if for every r>0 there is a finite subset of X say A such that the union of balls U{B(a,r):a in A} contains X.

So I'm just trying to get it into this form for my understanding
 
  • #12
Obviously, if A is empty, then the union is empty. And the empty set contains itself.
 

Related to Proving totally bounded sets are bounded.

1. How do you define a totally bounded set?

A totally bounded set is a set in which every finite subset can be covered by a finite number of smaller sets, also known as epsilon-balls. In other words, the points in a totally bounded set are all within a certain distance (epsilon) from each other.

2. What is the difference between a totally bounded set and a bounded set?

A bounded set is one in which all the points are contained within a finite distance from each other, while a totally bounded set is one in which every finite subset can be covered by a finite number of smaller sets (epsilon-balls). In other words, a totally bounded set is a stronger condition than a bounded set.

3. How do you prove that a totally bounded set is bounded?

To prove that a totally bounded set is bounded, we can use the concept of epsilon-balls. We can show that there exists a finite number of epsilon-balls that cover the entire set, which means that the points in the set are all within a finite distance from each other. This satisfies the definition of a bounded set.

4. Can a bounded set be totally bounded?

Yes, a bounded set can also be totally bounded. This means that not only are all the points in the set within a finite distance from each other, but every finite subset of the set can also be covered by a finite number of smaller sets (epsilon-balls).

5. Why is it important to prove that totally bounded sets are bounded?

Proving that totally bounded sets are bounded is important because it helps us understand the structure and properties of the set. It also allows us to use the concept of epsilon-balls to cover the set, which can be useful in various mathematical proofs and applications in fields such as analysis and topology.

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