Normalization of spherical harmonics

In summary, the conversation is about a problem in Griffith's QM text regarding the calculation of the normalization factor for spherical harmonic functions using the angular momentum step up operator. The conversation includes various definitions and results given by Griffiths and a suggested approach to solve the problem. One person is stuck on a particular step and asks for help, while the other guides them through the solution by giving hints and equations to work with. The conversation ends with the first person thanking the second for their help and providing the final result for the normalization constant.
  • #1
Pietjuh
76
0
There is this excersise in Griffith's QM text that I can't seem to solve. It's about the calculation of the normalization factor of the spherical harmonic functions using the angular momentum step up operator.

These definitions/results are given:

[tex]Y_l^m = B_l^m e^{im\phi} P_l^m (\cos\theta )[/tex]
[tex]L_{+} = \hbar e^{i\phi}\left(\frac{\partial}{\partial\theta} +i\cot\theta\frac{\partial}{\partial \phi}\right)[/tex]
[tex]L_+ Y_l^m = A_l^m Y_l^{m+1}[/tex]
[tex]A_l^m = \hbar \sqrt{l(l+1) - m(m+1)}[/tex]

The problem is to calculate [tex]B_l^m[/tex]. The approach suggested by Griffiths is to calculate [tex]L_+ Y_l^m[/tex] to get a recurrence relation for [tex]B_l^m[/tex]. This is the point where I get stuck. I guess it has something to do with the deravitive of [tex]P_l^m[/tex]. Anyhow, I'll give you my calculation until the point I got stuck and hope for the best that someone sees a mistake :)

[tex]
L_+ Y_l^m = \hbar e^{i\phi}\left(\frac{\partial}{\partial\theta} +i\cot\theta\frac{\partial}{\partial \phi}\right) B_l^m e^{im\phi} P_l^m (\cos\theta )
[/tex]

[tex] = \hbar e^{i\phi} B_l^m \left [ e^{im\phi}\frac{\partial}{\partial\theta}\left(P_l^m (\cos\theta )\right) + i\cot\theta P_l^m (\cos\theta ) \frac{\partial}{\partial\phi} e^{im\phi} \right]
[/tex]

Now I calculated the derivative of [tex]P_l^m[/tex] using the following formula:

[tex](1-x^2)\frac{dP_l^m}{dx} = \sqrt{1-x^2}P_l^{m+1} - mxP_l^m[/tex]

So using the chain rule [tex]\frac{d P_l^m(\cos\theta)}{d\theta} = \frac{d P_l^m}{dx}\frac{dx}{d\theta}[/tex] with [tex]x=\cos\theta[/tex] I got:

[tex] \frac{d}{d\theta} P_l^m = - \left[\frac{1}{\sqrt{1-\cos^2\theta}}P_l^{m+1} - \frac{m\cos\theta}{\sin^2\theta}P_l^m\right]\sin\theta
= m\frac{\cos\theta}{\sin\theta}P_l^m - P_l^{m+1} [/tex]

Plugging all this in I got the following result:

[tex]\hbar B_l^m \left[ (m-1)P_l^m\cot\theta - P_l^{m+1}\right] = A_l^m B_l^{m+1}P_l^{m+1}[/tex]

but when I try to solve this for [tex]B_l^m[/tex] I get an exploding expression :(
 
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  • #2
What do you mean??It should look pretty bad indeed...Do you have the expression in Griffiths to compare your result to...??

Daniel.
 
  • #3
I' m sorry my english isn't that good!
From the last equation I am trying to iterate [tex]B_l^m[/tex] so I will get [tex]B_l^m = A B_l^0[/tex]

Griffiths says it should be [tex]B_l^m = (-1)^m\sqrt{\frac{(2l+1)}{4\pi}\frac{(l-|m|)!}{(l+|m|)!}[/tex]
 
  • #4
Check pages 678 pp 690 from Cohen-Tannoudji.

If u don't have the book,i'll help you a bit later...

Daniel.
 
  • #5
I don't have that book. The only QM text I have is the one from Griffiths.
 
  • #6
Well,i'm not going to type 100 formulas for you,i'll give you some hints:
#1
[tex] \hat{L}_{-} Y_{l,-l}(\vartheta,\varphi) =0 [/tex]

Okay??

Solve this equation and find
[tex] Y_{l,-l} (\vartheta,\varphi) [/tex]

and tell me what u get.Normelize the solution and give the constant of integration as well.

Then i'll guide through step #2.

Daniel.
 
  • #7
These are a few results I'm getting but again it seems I'm stuck on the same sort of problem again :(

[tex]L_{-} Y_l^{-l} = -\hbar e^{-i\phi}\left(\frac{\partial Y_l^{-l}}{\partial\theta} - \cot\theta \frac{\partial Y_l^{-l}}{\partial \phi}\right)=0[/tex]

So [tex]\frac{\partial Y_l^{-l}}{\partial\theta} = \cot\theta \frac{\partial Y_l^{-l}}{\partial \phi}[/tex]

[tex]\frac{\partial Y_l^{-l}}{\partial \phi} = -il B_l^{-l} e^{-il\phi} P_l^{-l}[/tex]

[tex]\frac{\partial Y_l^{-l}}{\partial \theta} = B_l^{-l} e^{-il\phi}\left(P_l^{-l+1} + l\frac{\cos\theta}{\sin^2\theta}P_l^{-l}\right) [/tex]

so from this I get

[tex]P_l^{-l+1} + l\frac{\cos\theta}{\sin^2\theta}P_l^{-l} = -il\cot\theta P_l^{-l}[/tex]

But I can't see how I should continue...
Forgive me for my seemingly stupidity
 
  • #8
So
[tex] \hat{L}_{-} =\hbar e^{-i\varphi}(-\frac{\partial}{\partial \vartheta}+i\cot\vartheta \frac{\partial}{\partial \varphi}) [/tex] (1)

Okay??
[tex] Y_{l,-l}(\vartheta,\varphi)=P_{l,-l}(\vartheta)e^{-il\varphi} [/tex](2)

Apply the operator (1) on the function (2) and give me the differential equation for
[tex] P_{l,-l}(\vartheta) [/tex]

Daniel.
 
  • #9
[tex]L_{-} Y_l^{-l} = \hbar e^{-i(l+1)\phi}\left(\cot\theta P_l^{-l} - \frac{\partial P_l^{-l} } {\partial \theta} \right) = 0 [/tex]

so [tex]\frac{\partial P_l^{-l} } {\partial \theta} = \cot\theta P_l^{-l}[/tex]
 
  • #10
Almost,u missed the "l" when differentiating wrt [itex] \varphi [/itex].It's not PD anymore (one variable only,[itex] \vartheta [/itex]):

[tex] \frac{dP_{l,-l}(\vartheta)}{d\vartheta}=l\cot\vartheta P_{l,-l}(\vartheta) [/tex]

Solve this ODE.Then write the spherical harmonic...

Daniel.
 
  • #11
Integrating factor is [tex]\frac{1}{\sin^l\theta}[/tex], so
[tex]P_l^{-l} = C \sin^l\theta[/tex]

So [tex]Y_l^{-l} = C \sin^l\theta e^{-il\phi}[/tex]

#edit# I have to go now. Much thanks for your help! :)
 
Last edited:
  • #12
Perfect.Now normalize it and tell me what is the normalization constant...Chose the phase equal to 1.

Daniel.
 
  • #13
[tex]\int d\theta d\phi C^2 \sin^{2l}\theta = 2\pi C^2 \int_0^\pi d\theta sin^{2l}\theta[/tex]

since [tex]\int_0^\pi d\theta sin^n \theta = \frac{n-1}{n}\int_0^\pi d\theta sin^{n-2} \theta [/tex]

the integral is equal to

[tex]\frac{2l-1}{2l}\frac{2l-3}{2l-2}\cdots \frac{1}{2} \frac{\pi}{2}[/tex]
if n>=2 and n is even and this is equal to

[tex]\frac{2l-1}{2l}\frac{2l-3}{2l-2}\cdots \frac{2}{3}[/tex]

if n>=3 and n is odd.
But because 2l is always even and >= 2 we only need the first one,
so

[tex] C = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}} \sqrt{\frac{2l-1}{2l}\frac{2l-3}{2l-2}\cdots \frac{1}{2} \frac{\pi}{2}}[/tex]
 
  • #14
Pietjuh said:
[tex]\int d\theta d\phi C^2 \sin^{2l}\theta = 2\pi C^2 \int_0^\pi d\theta sin^{2l}\theta[/tex]

since [tex]\int_0^\pi d\theta sin^n \theta = \frac{n-1}{n}\int_0^\pi d\theta sin^{n-2} \theta [/tex]

the integral is equal to

[tex]\frac{2l-1}{2l}\frac{2l-3}{2l-2}\cdots \frac{1}{2} \frac{\pi}{2}[/tex]
if n>=2 and n is even and this is equal to

[tex]\frac{2l-1}{2l}\frac{2l-3}{2l-2}\cdots \frac{2}{3}[/tex]

if n>=3 and n is odd.
But because 2l is always even and >= 2 we only need the first one,
so

[tex] C = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}} \sqrt{\frac{2l-1}{2l}\frac{2l-3}{2l-2}\cdots \frac{1}{2} \frac{\pi}{2}}[/tex]


How did you get that result??Mine is totally different.

BTW,the site which had Abramowitz & Stegun is not working... :cry:

Daniel.
 
  • #15
The formula [tex]\int_0^\pi d\theta sin^n \theta = \frac{n-1}{n}\int_0^\pi d\theta sin^{n-2} \theta [/tex] was on the backcover of my calculus book and the result I got in my previous post was just a sort of copy from an example in the chapter on partial integration.
 
  • #16
Then why do i get the feeling that my result is correct
[tex] C_{l}=\frac{1}{\sqrt{4\pi}}\frac{\sqrt{(2l+1)!}}{2^{l} \ l!} [/tex]

and yours,which i cannot see how it can be put in a form similar to mine,is wrong...

Daniel.

P.S.BTW,mine coincides with the one given by Cohen-Tannoudji,page 682,#29.
 
  • #17
I think you are absolutely correct, which makes me feel even more stupid because I can't seem to evaluate integrals properly anymore :confused:

I'm going to type it out step by step now, and hopefully you can discover (or myself) where I'm going the wrong way.

[tex]\int_0^{2\pi}\int_0^\pi |Y_l^m|^2 \sin\theta d\theta d\phi = 1[/tex]

[tex]\int_0^{2\pi}\int_0^\pi |Y_l^m|^2 \sin\theta d\theta d\phi =
\int_0^{2\pi}\int_0^\pi C^2 \sin^{2l+1}\theta d\theta d\phi =
2\pi C^2 \int_0^\pi \sin^{2l+1} d\theta = 1
[/tex]

Using the iteration formula [tex]\int_0^\pi d\theta sin^n \theta = \frac{n-1}{n}\int_0^\pi d\theta sin^{n-2} \theta [/tex] I get:

[tex]
\int_0^\pi \sin^{2l+1} d\theta = \frac{2l}{2l+1} \frac{2l-2}{2l-1} \cdots \frac{2}{3} \int_0^\pi \sin\theta d\theta = \frac{2l}{2l+1} \frac{2l-2}{2l-1} \cdots \frac{2}{3} 2
[/tex]

So

[tex]
C^2 = \frac{1}{4\pi} \frac{2l+1}{2l} \frac{2l-1}{2l-2}\cdots \frac{3}{2}
[/tex]

But I can't seem to rewrite this in your form :confused:
 
  • #18
Maybe i can

[tex] |C_{l}|^{2}=\frac{1}{4\pi} \frac{(2l+1)!}{(2l)!}=\frac{1}{4\pi}\frac{(2l+1)!}{[(2l)!]^{2}} [/tex]

Then
[tex] |C_{l}|=\frac{1}{\sqrt{4\pi}}\frac{\sqrt{(2l+1)!}}{(2l)!} [/tex]

Writing
[tex] (2l)!=2^{l} \ l! [/tex]
and chosing the phase
[tex] \phi=(-1)^{l} [/tex]

,we get
[tex] C_{l}=(-1)^{l}\frac{1}{\sqrt{4\pi}}\frac{\sqrt{(2l+1)!}}{2^{l} \ l!} [/tex]

which coincides with the formula #14,page 679,Cohen-Tannoudji.


Daniel.
 
  • #19
ah ok :)
I never heard of this double factorial, so I was wondering how to write (2l+1)(2l-1)... as a factorial :)
 

Related to Normalization of spherical harmonics

What are spherical harmonics?

Spherical harmonics are a set of mathematical functions that describe the distribution of values on the surface of a sphere. They are commonly used in physics and mathematics to represent complex 3D shapes and functions.

Why is normalization of spherical harmonics important?

Normalization of spherical harmonics is important because it helps to ensure that the functions have consistent and well-defined values across the entire surface of a sphere. This is necessary for accurate and reliable calculations in various fields, such as quantum mechanics and geodesy.

How is normalization of spherical harmonics achieved?

Normalization of spherical harmonics is achieved by dividing each function by a normalization factor, which is calculated based on the degree and order of the harmonics. This factor ensures that the integral of the squared function over the sphere is equal to 1.

What is the relationship between normalization of spherical harmonics and orthogonality?

Normalization of spherical harmonics is closely related to orthogonality, as the normalized functions must be orthogonal to each other in order to represent different modes of a spherical function independently. This means that the integral of the product of two different normalized functions over the sphere is equal to 0.

Do all spherical harmonics need to be normalized?

No, not all spherical harmonics need to be normalized. In some cases, unnormalized spherical harmonics may be used for convenience or to simplify calculations. However, in many applications, such as quantum mechanics, normalization is essential for accurate results.

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