Lagrangian is invariant under the transformation

In summary, the conversation discusses a problem from Peskin and Schroeder where a Lagrangian is given and the task is to show its invariance under a given transformation. The conversation goes through the steps of the attempt at a solution, highlighting the difficulties with the two terms involving ##\psi##. The solution is then provided with the reminder to consider the transformation of ##\bar{\psi}## as well. Finally, the conversation points out how the term ##\cos\alpha + i\gamma^5\sin\alpha## can be rewritten as a complex exponential to combine it with the other factors.
  • #1
Chopin
368
13
I should mention that I'm self-studying this material, not taking it as part of a course, but since this is still a homework-style problem I figured it'd be best to post here.

Homework Statement


In Peskin and Schroeder problem #11.2, they ask us to consider the Lagrangian:
$$\mathcal{L} = \frac{1}{2}(\partial_\mu \phi^i)^2 + \frac{1}{2}\mu^2(\phi^i)^2 - \frac{\lambda}{4}((\phi^i)^2)^2 + \bar{\psi}(i\not{\partial})\psi - g\bar{\psi}(\phi^1 + i\gamma^5\phi^2)\psi$$
where ##i=1,2##

They then ask us to show that this Lagrangian is invariant under the transformation:

$$\phi^1 \rightarrow \cos \alpha \phi^1 - \sin \alpha \phi^2\\
\phi^2 \rightarrow \sin \alpha \phi^1 + \cos \alpha \phi^2\\
\psi \rightarrow e^{-i\alpha \gamma^5/2}\psi$$

The Attempt at a Solution


It's easy to show that ##(\partial_\mu \phi^i)^2 \rightarrow (\partial_\mu \phi^i)^2## and ##(\phi^i)^2 \rightarrow (\phi^i)^2##, so that handles all of the ##\phi## terms. I'm confused about the two ##\psi## terms, though.

1. For the ##\bar{\psi}(i\not{\partial})\psi## term, I have to commute the ##e^{-i\alpha\gamma^5/2}## past the ##\gamma^\mu## hidden in the ##\not{\partial}##, so that I can cancel it against the ##e^{i\alpha\gamma^5/2}##. My assumption is that this creates a non-trivial answer, though. Since ##\{\gamma^5, \gamma^\mu\} = 0##, if we imagine Taylor-expanding the exponential, the terms with even powers of ##\gamma^5## will be unchanged, but the terms with odd powers will pick up an extra minus sign. I'm not sure how it's possible to make everything cancel out. Am I missing something stupid here?

2. For the ##g\bar{\psi}(\phi^1 + i\gamma^5\phi^2)\psi##, I plugged in the transformations and got the following:

$$g\bar{\psi}(\phi^1 + i\gamma^5\phi^2)\psi \rightarrow g\bar{\psi}e^{i\alpha \gamma^5/2}((\cos \alpha \phi^1 - \sin \alpha \phi^2) + i\gamma^5(\sin \alpha \phi^1 + \cos \alpha \phi^2))e^{-i\alpha \gamma^5/2}\psi\\
= g\bar{\psi}e^{i\alpha \gamma^5/2}(\cos \alpha + i\gamma^5 \sin \alpha)(\phi^1 + i\gamma^5\phi^2)e^{-i\alpha \gamma^5/2}\psi$$

That gets me close, since at least the form of the ##\phi## terms is right. I'm pretty sure I can now commute the ##e^{-i\alpha\gamma^5/2}## term on the right hand end all the way over to the left to cancel the ##e^{i\alpha\gamma^5/2}## term, since the only thing in the middle is more ##\gamma^5## matrices. But that still leaves me with the ##(\cos \alpha + i\gamma^5 \sin \alpha)## term, and I don't see any way to get rid of that. Can anybody tell me what I'm doing wrong?
 
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  • #2
Remember that you actually have [itex]\bar{\psi} = \psi^{\dagger} \gamma^0[/itex], so the transformation is

[tex]
\bar{\psi} \rightarrow \psi^{\dagger}e^{i\alpha \gamma^5/2}\gamma^0 = \bar{\psi}e^{-i\alpha \gamma^5/2}.
[/tex]

This should take care of your first problem (and it's essential for the second part too of course). For your second problem, notice that the term [itex]\cos\alpha + i\gamma^5 \sin\alpha[/itex] resembles a complex exponential. See if you can write it as one to combine it with the other unwanted factors.
 
  • #3
Doh, I always forget about the ##\gamma^0##. Now I see how it all works out. Thanks very much!
 

Related to Lagrangian is invariant under the transformation

1. What does it mean for the Lagrangian to be invariant under a transformation?

It means that the mathematical expression for the Lagrangian remains the same even after applying a certain transformation, such as a change in coordinates or a rotation.

2. Why is it important for the Lagrangian to be invariant under a transformation?

It is important because it allows us to use the principle of least action in physics, which is based on the invariance of the Lagrangian. This principle helps us to determine the most probable path or trajectory for a system.

3. What are the consequences of the Lagrangian being invariant under a transformation?

The consequences include the conservation of energy, momentum, and angular momentum, as well as the preservation of symmetries in the system. This also allows us to use the Euler-Lagrange equations to derive the equations of motion for a system.

4. Can the Lagrangian be invariant under all types of transformations?

No, the Lagrangian can only be invariant under certain types of transformations, such as translations, rotations, and time translations. It may not be invariant under other types of transformations, which can lead to the breakdown of the principle of least action and the conservation laws.

5. How is the invariance of the Lagrangian related to Noether's theorem?

Noether's theorem states that for every continuous symmetry in a system, there exists a corresponding conserved quantity. The invariance of the Lagrangian under a transformation is a direct result of this theorem, as it shows that the Lagrangian is independent of certain transformations and therefore leads to the conservation of certain quantities.

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