Recent content by thegirl

I don't think it is, as wt is mentioned seperately when phi is mentioned. Phi is mentioned when defining the amplitude of the wave Eo= |Eo|e^iphi{Eo}, where {Eo} is the unit vector.

Earlier on a general interference between two waves is obtained and it is assumed that they have the same phase velocity and so phi1=phi2, and the function collapses. Perhaps this is the case here?

In the case of two fields interfering with each other when calculating the total electric field, cos (phi1-phi2 + kx) = cos( kx) where kx is the path difference between the two fields. How does cos (phi1-phi2 +kx)=cos(kx) Isit just algebra?

Hi, Does anyone know why k has to be real in an infinite system for bloch's theorem. I understand that the wavefunction becomes unphysical in an infinite system as it diverges. Why does that mean k has to be real? f(x)=u(x)exp(ikx)

is that because when x aproaches infinity cosh(x) = infinity and as e^x also approaches infinity when x approaches infinity it can be said that lim(x-> infinity) cosh(x) = (lim x-> infinity)e^x? Also, thanks for replying!

Hi I was wondering how you get this when taking the limit of T going to 0 From this expression of S: Please help I don't see how ln infinity goes to uB/KbT (used u to represent the greek letter. And how does the other expression of sinh and cosh approach 1?

Omg, thank you!

Hi, How did they break down the following summation? When finding the vibrational partition function ofa diatomic molecule it was approximated that the energy levels of the vibrational part of the diatomic molecule were harmonic and therefore the energy equation for a harmonic oscillator was...

Thank you!

when expressing dS as a function of dV and dT, dU was expanded out as you can see in the screenshot below, is there a mathematical rule which allows this? does the fact that the internal energy is expanded out change the meaning of the expression?

p = <v|v> where v represents a wavefunction, can that also be a distribution function?

I'm currently studying particle physics and when talking about the lorentz invariant phase space factor in the notes it starts off with the probability density of a free relativistic particle being p=2E|N|^2 and then goes on to say the lorentz invariant number density becomes dn=d^3r/(2pi)^3p...

I was just wondering how number density relates to probability density in general, within particle physics? Thank you!

Thank You!

Hi, why there is only odd eigenfunctions for a 1/2 harmonic oscillator where V(x) does not equal infinity in the +ve x direction but for x<0 V(x) = infinity. I understand that the "ground state" wave function would be 0 as when x is 0 V(x) is infinity and therefore the wavefunction is 0, and...