- #1
raopeng
- 86
- 0
Because according to Faraday's law there should be a change in the flux to generate electric potential for a current to take place. But in that case no flux change happens. This can be reasonably explained by Lorentz force(charge separation due to radial Lorentz force) but can we still apply Faraday's law here? I feel it is because that since we must observe the current in a frame inert to the disk, so the magnetic field, under Lorentz transformation, is not constant anymore, hence the change in flux in that frame of reference.