- #1
Bassalisk
- 947
- 2
I know that from the sampling theorem you have to go at least twice the frequency you want to sample.
Human hearing is around 20 kHz. So 40 kHz would be enough. What are those extra 4100 Hz there for. Now don't get me wrong, I tried google but all results were vague and only scratched the surface of the question.
Some of them said, reduce in entropy, some of the mentioned pass bands etc. Can anybody give me full, straight answer? Don't be afraid to go technical on me, I am very curios about this...
Human hearing is around 20 kHz. So 40 kHz would be enough. What are those extra 4100 Hz there for. Now don't get me wrong, I tried google but all results were vague and only scratched the surface of the question.
Some of them said, reduce in entropy, some of the mentioned pass bands etc. Can anybody give me full, straight answer? Don't be afraid to go technical on me, I am very curios about this...