? Why does F=ma instead of F=mv ?

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In summary: This is how you should calculate it.In summary, the conversation discusses the relationship between velocity and acceleration, and how they apply to a car hitting a person sitting in the middle of the motorway. It is determined that in this scenario, the person would experience a large acceleration and force due to the car's impact. The conversation also explores the concept of momentum and its role in calculating force. The importance of using the correct formulas for different scenarios is highlighted.
  • #1
Mental Gridlock
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I know this is probably a complete n00b question, but I have tried all over the www and couldn't find it explained.

Correct any of these premises if they are wrong, maybe that's my problem, but...

velocity is current speed and acceleration is change in speed.

So, if something is moving at a constant speed, it's acceleration is zero.

So if a car (say 2000kg) is traveling at a constant speed of say 70mph on the motorway, and I like to have a picnic in the center lane, and that car hits me, the force it exerts should be zero because F=2000 x 0 which is zero so no force exerted on me?

Yet I'm still thinking I'd be in trouble.. So what would cause me trouble if not a force exerted on me..

I assume my misunderstanding is something very basic and obvious.

Thanks.
 
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  • #2
Mental Gridlock said:
I know this is probably a complete n00b question, but I have tried all over the www and couldn't find it explained.

Correct any of these premises if they are wrong, maybe that's my problem, but...

velocity is current speed and acceleration is change in speed.

So, if something is moving at a constant speed, it's acceleration is zero.

So far so good.

Mental Gridlock said:
So if a car (say 2000kg) is traveling at a constant speed of say 70mph on the motorway, and I like to have a picnic in the center lane, and that car hits me, the force it exerts should be zero because F=2000 x 0 which is zero so no force exerted on me?

Yet I'm still thinking I'd be in trouble.. So what would cause me trouble if not a force exerted on me..

Assuming no friction or air resistance, then sure, the car doesn't have a force on it. In reality, it does. Still, you are sitting in the middle of the highway moving at zero velocity. After you are hit, do you think you will still be moving at zero velocity? Certainly not. You would be accelerated to effectively the same speed as the car and over a very short time, meaning a large acceleration and a large force to go with it.
 
  • #3
Mental Gridlock said:
So, if something is moving at a constant speed, it's acceleration is zero.

So if a car (say 2000kg) is traveling at a constant speed of say 70mph on the motorway, and I like to have a picnic in the center lane, and that car hits me, the force it exerts should be zero because F=2000 x 0 which is zero so no force exerted on me?

Yet I'm still thinking I'd be in trouble.. So what would cause me trouble if not a force exerted on me..
For determining the force exerted on you the important thing is your acceleration. If you are sitting at your highway picnic and no car is hitting you then you are at 0 mph and remain at 0 mph so you are not accelerating and there is no force. When the car hits you go from 0 mph to 70 mph almost instantaneously so you accelerate dramatically due to the very large force acting on you.

The car, meanwhile, has also accelerated. It has much more mass than you do, say 20 times as much. So while you accelerate by 70 mph the car decelerates by 3 or 4 mph. The force required to do so leaves a big dent in the fender, plus all of the mess from your picnic.
 
  • #4
Probably the more important question is ... why would someone be having a picnic in the middle of the motorway?
 
  • #5
Whovian said:
Probably the more important question is ... why would someone be having a picnic in the middle of the motorway?

If a car hitting you would exert 0 force...then why not? Hence OP's question.
 
  • #6
It should be

F = ma

vs

KE = 1/2mv^2

For accelerating systems, F=ma, determines the force required to ACCELERATE the body. This is not the energy the body possesses.

The situation you are describing, constant speed of car, the KE formula does what you want, determines the kinetic energy that the body possesses. i.e. how hard it "hits" something.
 
  • #7
Mental Gridlock said:
I know this is probably a complete n00b question,
Correct any of these premises if they are wrong, maybe that's my problem, but...

Mental Gridlock said:
So if a car (say 2000kg) is traveling at a constant speed of say 70mph on the motorway, and I like to have a picnic in the center lane, and that car hits me, the force it exerts should be zero because F=2000 x 0 which is zero so no force exerted on me?

Yet I'm still thinking I'd be in trouble.. So what would cause me trouble if not a force exerted on me..

So, is this a premise or a conclusion? If it's a premise, where did you get it from, because it certainly looks wrong. If it's a conclusion, you made a non-sequitur logical fallacy, since it does not follow from your previous premises.

Do you know that 2nd Newton's law should be applied to one body at a time? Your premises are about the car, and it seems to me you are wondering if a force would be exerted on an unlucky object in the middle of the road.
 
  • #8
I think you should use this relationship; p = mv (which is Momentum).
p; the affect on you. So to calculate that:
p = 2000 (kg) x 70 (mph) = 140,000 kg.mi/h
----
 
  • #9
Mental Gridlock said:
velocity is current speed and acceleration is change in speed.
No,Acceleration is change in velocity

Mental Gridlock said:
So, if something is moving at a constant speed, it's acceleration is zero.
Not necessarily.If the object is changing direction.(Think of centripetal motion.)

OP said:
So if a car (say 2000kg) is traveling at a constant speed of say 70mph on the motorway, and I like to have a picnic in the center lane, and that car hits me, the force it exerts should be zero because F=2000 x 0 which is zero so no force exerted on me?

Force=Change in momentum/time taken
Say you have 50kg and after the car hit you,your velocity increases to 50m/s(Common sense) in 5 seconds
Force exerted on you=##\frac{mv-mu}{t}=\frac{50*50-50*0}{5}=500N##
So the car exerted 500N of force on you.

(That's the net force acting on the car
Using F=ma,
The net force on car is 0N yes.But it's moving at constant velocity then how can there be no force?
Ans:The net force is zero(That does not mean there are no forces)

Force exerted on you,
F=ma
F=50*a(You will surely accelerate,the car won't go through you.)
 
  • #10
the force it exerts should be zero because F=2000 x 0 which is zero so no force exerted on me?

When the car hits you the car will slow down (slightly) and you will be accelerated (significantly). So the acceleration isn't zero.
 
  • #11
Two-year old thread that did not need to be resurrected. Locked.
 

Related to ? Why does F=ma instead of F=mv ?

1. Why does F=ma instead of F=mv?

The equation F=ma represents Newton's second law of motion, which states that the acceleration of an object is directly proportional to the net force acting on it and inversely proportional to its mass. This means that the greater the force applied to an object, the greater its acceleration will be, and the more mass an object has, the less it will accelerate for a given force. This is why F=ma is a more accurate representation of the relationship between force, mass, and acceleration compared to F=mv, which does not take into account the mass of the object.

2. How is F=ma derived?

The equation F=ma is derived from Newton's second law of motion, as stated above. It can also be derived from the concept of momentum, which is defined as the product of an object's mass and velocity. By taking the derivative of momentum with respect to time, you can arrive at the equation F=ma. This shows that force is directly related to the rate of change of an object's momentum, which is its acceleration.

3. Can F=ma be applied to all objects?

Yes, F=ma can be applied to all objects, regardless of their size, shape, or composition. This is because the equation represents a fundamental law of physics that governs the motion of all objects. However, it may not be the most accurate representation for objects moving at speeds close to the speed of light, as it does not take into account relativistic effects.

4. Is F=ma always true?

Yes, F=ma is always true as long as the force and acceleration are in the same direction and there are no external forces acting on the object. This is known as the principle of superposition, which states that the total force on an object is equal to the sum of all individual forces acting on it. However, in certain situations such as when dealing with fluids or objects moving at high speeds, additional equations and considerations may be needed.

5. How is F=ma used in real life?

F=ma is used in many practical applications in our daily lives. For example, it is used in designing cars and other vehicles to ensure they have enough power to accelerate and maintain a certain speed. It is also used in sports, such as calculating the force required to kick a ball a certain distance. Additionally, F=ma is used in engineering and construction to determine the strength and stability of structures under different forces and accelerations.

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