- #1
weezy
- 92
- 5
While studying Ehrenfest's theorem I came across this formula for time-derivatives of expectation values. What I can't understand is why is position/momentum operator time-independent? What does it mean to be a time-dependent operator? Since position/momentum of a particle may change continuously I believe they should be time dependent. I know that I'm wrong with my reasoning. Where am I confusing?