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Please refer to the attached image.
My lecturer seems to have rewritten $e^{st}$ as $\frac{d}{dt}e^{st}$ and taken out the $(\frac{1}{s}$ which I do see is equivalent, but i am unsure how he goes from there onwards.
Although, e is the derivative of itself. how does he split the integral into two, despite there being a multiplication of the terms?
My lecturer seems to have rewritten $e^{st}$ as $\frac{d}{dt}e^{st}$ and taken out the $(\frac{1}{s}$ which I do see is equivalent, but i am unsure how he goes from there onwards.
Although, e is the derivative of itself. how does he split the integral into two, despite there being a multiplication of the terms?
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