- #1
3nTr0pY
- 10
- 0
Would it be fair to say that before an observation, a wave-particle is in a superposition of many possible states but that after the observation, the wave-particle is found only in one state?
Would that be analogous to saying that it goes from behaving in a very wave-like manner to behaving in a very particle-like manner because the wavefunction has collapsed?
I just want to be clear on what's going on.
Would that be analogous to saying that it goes from behaving in a very wave-like manner to behaving in a very particle-like manner because the wavefunction has collapsed?
I just want to be clear on what's going on.