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[SOLVED] vibrating beam concept question


Well-known member
Feb 1, 2012
If we had a beam fixed at $x = 0$ and on pin rollers at $x = L$, why would $u_{xx}(L,t) = 0$ and $u_x(0,t) = 0$.

$u(0,t) =0$ since the at $x = 0$ the beam is fixed and $u(L,t) = 0$ since the beam is on roller and wouldn't have any displacement, correct?