# Very complicated result

#### ZaidAlyafey

##### Well-known member
MHB Math Helper
I was solving an integral and I got an over complicated result

$$\displaystyle \frac{1}{2}\log^2\left(\phi\right)-\frac{1}{4}\log^2\left( \frac{1+\phi }{4}\right)-\arctan^2\left(\sqrt{\phi}\right)$$

where $\phi$ is the golden ratio .

The numeric value proved an equivalence to the value of the integral .

Can anybody simplify it a little bit , or should I leave it like this ?

#### Ackbach

##### Indicium Physicus
Staff member
It doesn't look to me like you could simplify it. $\phi$ does not have nice properties, so far as I know, with the fractions you have there. It is true that
$$\phi=\frac{1+\sqrt{5}}{2},$$
but you don't have that fraction showing up anywhere.