- #1
ObsessiveMathsFreak
- 406
- 8
I've been reading some material on the Schrödinger wave equation, and quite a few sources claim that there is no derivation for the equation at all. That it essentially falls out of nowhere.
This is confusing for me as I have seen some plausible derivations based on de Broglie waves. Are these derivations invalid; do they simply constitute hand-waving? Is the equation simply to be taken as given?
This is confusing for me as I have seen some plausible derivations based on de Broglie waves. Are these derivations invalid; do they simply constitute hand-waving? Is the equation simply to be taken as given?