Hope this is in the right place... I'm trying to understand why the derivative of ln(x) is 1/x while the derivative of something like ln(4) is 0. My knee-jerk reaction is to view 4 as representative of x, thereby giving me F'(x) ln(4) = 1/4, not 0. That would be the case, except ln(4) is a constant. Since I understand that ln(4) is a constant, the derivative should in fact be a zero. So maybe what is confusing me is why do we have the algebraic version of F'(x) ln(x) = 1/x in the first place (unless x represents another function instead of a number)?