- #1
joeyjj3
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I'm having a hard time understanding example 5.8 in Introduction to Electrodynamics by Griffiths. Why, exactly, is Ienc = KL? It makes sense intuitively, but I don't see how to get this result explicitly -- shouldn't the line integral be along the y-axis, and since [tex]\bar{K}[/tex]=K[tex]\hat{x}[/tex], shouldn't the dot product be equal to zero? If it's not along the y-axis, how is it that the integral can be from L to 0? If anybody could explicitly do the dot product and integral that finds the enclosed current in this example (5.8 Griffiths), that would be really helpful.
Thanks for any info.
Thanks for any info.