Transformation of velocity exceeding light speed

In summary, the velocity addition rule states that the ratio of two velocities is the same as the velocity of a moving object.
  • #1
sweet springs
1,223
75
In discussion with my friend, we reached a conclusion that transformation formula of velosity v to another IFR moving V, i.e.
[tex]v'=\frac{v+V}{1+vV/c^2}[/tex]
is valid even if v is hypothetical velocity,i,e,
[tex]v=\frac{x_2-x_1}{t_2-t_1}[/tex]
[tex]v'=\frac{x'_2-x'_1}{t'_2-t'_1}[/tex]
where interval of ##(t_1,x_1)\rightarrow (t'_1,x'_1)## and ##(t_2,x_2)\rightarrow (t_2',x_2')## are time-like, space-lile, null, it doen't matter.
For example when ##t_2-t_1=0## ,##v=\pm \infty## is trandformed to
[tex]\pm \infty \rightarrow \frac{\pm \infty + V}{1+\pm \infty V/c^2}=\frac{c^2}{V}[/tex]
Of course it is over c but it seems to work describing change of synchronicity.
I have never thought of such an application of the law so appreciate your comment whether it is OK or No Good.
 
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  • #2
sweet springs said:
i,e,

$$
v=\frac{x_2-x_1}{t_2-t_1}
$$
$$
v'=\frac{x'_2-x'_1}{t'_2-t'_1}
$$

where interval of ##(t_1,x_1)\rightarrow (t'_1,x'_1)## and ##(t_2,x_2)\rightarrow (t_2',x_2')## are time-like, space-lile, null, it doen't matter.

There are two problems here. First, "velocity" is ##dx / dt##, not ##(x_2 - x_1) / (t_2 - t_1)##. It's a derivative, not a ratio.

Second, the Lorentz transformation, which is where you're getting all this from, is only valid if ##dx / dt < 1## (or ##c## in conventional units). There is no such thing as a Lorentz transformation with ##v \ge 1##, because there is no such thing as an inertial frame with a null or spacelike "time axis".
 
  • Like
Likes sweet springs
  • #3
Thanks. I will give some more details of the discussion.

----------------------
A stationary wave
[tex]\Psi/A=sin[\omega t]sin[k z]=\frac{1}{2} cos[kz-\omega t]-\frac{1}{2} cos[-kz-\omega t][/tex]
is transfomed to moving IFR of velocity v in z direction
[tex]\Psi/A=\Psi'/A'= sin[\omega \gamma (t'+vz'/c^2)]sin[k \gamma(z'+vt')]=\frac{1}{2} cos[\gamma(k-\omega v/c^2)z'-\gamma(\omega-kv)t']-\frac{1}{2} cos[-\gamma(k+\omega v/c^2)z'-\gamma(\omega+kv)t'][/tex]
where
dispersion relation [tex]\omega=u k[/tex],
for a wave going out
[tex]\omega'_1=\gamma(\omega-kv)[/tex]
[tex]k'_1=\gamma(k-\omega v/c^2)[/tex] 
for a wave coming in
[tex]\omega'_2=\gamma(\omega+kv)[/tex]
[tex]k'_2=-\gamma(k+\omega v/c^2)[/tex]
-------------------

We can easily confirm that velocity ##\omega'_1/k'_1## ##\omega'_2/k'_2## follow the addition rule.
Furthermore as for ##sin[\omega t]## where ##sin[0\cdot z + \omega t]## means velocity ##-\omega/0=\pm\infty## ,and ##sin[\omega \gamma (t'+vz'/c^2)]## where velocity is ##c^2/v > c##, these "velocities" seem satisfying the addition rule as mentioned in OP.
Is the velocity addition rule applicable also for such velocities exceeding c?

More clearly, as for the formula
[tex]x'=\frac{x+V}{1+xV/c^2}[/tex]
where x' is a quantity in moving IFR by velocity V, which corresponds to x in the original IFR, it is sure that this formula stands for x of ordinary velocity <c so this formula becomes the velocity addition rule in that case.
I am suggested that this formula also stands for x of extraordinary velocities exceeding c or even infinity as exemplified above. Is it all right?

PS The formula suggest that in all the IFRs, -c< ordinary speed <c and |extraordinary speed |>c . They are in the different regions and no contamination take place.
 
Last edited:
  • #4
sweet springs said:
Is the velocity addition rule applicable also for such velocities exceeding c?

I've already answered this--the answer is no--and explained why.
 
  • #5
PeterDonis said:
There are two problems here. First, "velocity" is dx/dt, not (x2−x1)/(t2−t1). It's a derivative, not a ratio.

As for the ratio , say, two events
[tex]A(t_A,z_A),B(t_B,z_A)[/tex] be expressed as [tex]A(t'_A,z'_A),B(t'_B,z'_A)[/tex] in change of IFRs where
[tex]t'_A=\gamma(t_A+Vz_A/c^2), z'_A=\gamma(z_A+Vt_A)[/tex]
[tex]t'_B=\gamma(t_B+Vz_B/c^2), z'_B=\gamma(z_B+Vt_B)[/tex]
Let us see how the ratio would be transformed
[tex]\frac{z'_B-z'_A}{t'_B-t'_A}=\frac{\gamma(z_B-z_A)+\gamma V(t_B-t_A)}{\gamma(t_B-t_A)+\gamma V(z_A-z_B)/c^2}=\frac{\frac{z_B-z_A}{t_B-t_A}+V}{1+V/c^2 \frac{z_B-z_A}{t_B-t_A}}[/tex]
It is same as the velocity addition rule. There is no condition put between A and B, e.g. interval is time-like, space-like or null.

This includes the case if we take both A and B is on the same world line and very close to infinity zero then the ratio turns out to be velocity dz/dt.
 
Last edited:
  • #6
sweet springs said:
There is no condition put between A and B, e.g. interval is time-like, space-like or null.

You are incorrect. The transformation you are using is a Lorentz transformation, which is only valid if the relative velocity is less than the speed of light. I have already explained why.

Since your question has been answered and you are simply repeating incorrect statements at this point, this thread is closed.
 

Related to Transformation of velocity exceeding light speed

1. What is the theory behind exceeding the speed of light?

The theory of special relativity, proposed by Albert Einstein, states that the speed of light is the maximum speed at which all matter and information in the universe can travel. This means that it is not possible for anything to exceed the speed of light, as it would require an infinite amount of energy.

2. Can anything travel faster than the speed of light?

According to the theory of special relativity, no. However, some theories, such as the Alcubierre drive, propose ways in which the fabric of space-time could be manipulated to allow for faster-than-light travel. These theories are currently purely hypothetical and have not been proven.

3. What would happen if an object were to travel faster than light?

According to the theory of special relativity, an object traveling faster than light would experience time dilation, meaning time would slow down for the object relative to an observer. The object would also experience an increase in mass, making it more difficult to accelerate. As it approaches the speed of light, its mass would become infinite, making it impossible to reach the speed of light.

4. Is it possible for humans to travel faster than the speed of light?

Based on our current understanding of physics, it is not possible for humans to travel faster than the speed of light. The immense amount of energy required and the effects of time dilation and mass increase make it impossible for our current technology to achieve such speeds.

5. Are there any real-life examples of objects traveling faster than the speed of light?

No, there are no known examples of objects traveling faster than the speed of light. However, some objects in the universe, such as galaxies and quasars, appear to be moving away from us at speeds faster than light due to the expansion of the universe. This is not actually the objects themselves moving faster than light, but rather the space between them and us expanding faster than the speed of light.

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