The set of integers is countable

In summary, $\mathbb{Z}$ is countable because it is an infinite set, and the function $f$ defined as $f(\langle n,m \rangle)=m-n$ is surjective. This can be seen by choosing any integer $l\in \Bbb Z$ and showing that $f(\langle m, n \rangle)=m-n$ if $l<0$ for $m=1, n=1-l$, if $l=0$ for $m=1, n=1$, and if $l>0$ for $m=l+1, n=1$.
  • #1
evinda
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Hello! (Smirk)

Proposition
The set $\mathbb{Z}$ of integers is countable.

Proof

$\mathbb{Z}$ is an infinite set since $\{ +n: n \in \omega \} \subset \mathbb{Z}$.

$$+n= [\langle n, 0 \rangle]=\{ \langle k,l \rangle: k+n=l\}$$

We define the function $f: \omega^2 \to \mathbb{Z}$ with $f(\langle n,m \rangle)=m-n$ that is obviously surjective.
Since $\omega^2$ is countable we conclude that $\mathbb{Z}$ is countable.In this case can we subtract two natural numbers since we define $+n= [\langle n, 0 \rangle]=\{ \langle k,l \rangle: k+n=l\}$ ?Also how could we show that $f$ is surjective?
It suffices to show that $\forall y \in m-n, \exists \langle m, n \rangle $ such that $f(\langle m, n \rangle)=m-n$, right?
How could this be shown? (Thinking)
 
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  • #2
Hi evinda,

What do you mean when you say that $\Bbb Z$ is a finite set? As for the surjectivity of $f$, take any integer $l\in \Bbb Z$. If $l < 0$, then $f(1,1 - l) = l$. If $l = 0$, then $f(1,1) = l$. Finally, if $l > 0$, then $f(l+1,1) = l$.
 
  • #3
Euge said:
What do you mean when you say that $\Bbb Z$ is a finite set?

That was a typo... (Tmi)

Euge said:
As for the surjectivity of $f$, take any integer $l\in \Bbb Z$. If $l < 0$, then $f(1,1 - l) = l$. If $l = 0$, then $f(1,1) = l$. Finally, if $l > 0$, then $f(l+1,1) = l$.

How did you calculate these values? (Thinking)
 
  • #4
I might be misunderstanding your question, but I calculated the values using the formula for $f$.
 
  • #5
Euge said:
I might be misunderstanding your question, but I calculated the values using the formula for $f$.

You pick any $l \in \mathbb{Z}$. If $l<0$ why does it hold that $m=1, n=1-l$?
 
  • #6
Well, if $l < 0$, then $1-l$ is a natural number, and $ f (1,1-l) = 1-(1-l) = l $.
 

Related to The set of integers is countable

1. What does it mean for a set of integers to be countable?

Being countable means that there is a way to list out all the elements in the set in a systematic way, such that every element will eventually be included in the list.

2. How do you prove that the set of integers is countable?

The most common way to prove that a set is countable is by demonstrating a one-to-one correspondence between the elements of the set and the natural numbers (1, 2, 3, ...). This can be done through various methods, such as diagonalization or creating a mapping function.

3. Is the set of integers the same as the set of whole numbers?

No, the set of integers includes both positive and negative numbers, while the set of whole numbers only includes positive numbers starting from 0.

4. Can any infinite set be countable?

No, not all infinite sets are countable. A set is countable if it can be put into a one-to-one correspondence with the natural numbers. Sets that cannot be put into this correspondence are called uncountable sets, such as the set of real numbers.

5. Why is it important to understand that the set of integers is countable?

Understanding that the set of integers is countable is important in many areas of mathematics and science, as it allows us to reason about infinite sets and understand their properties. It also has practical applications in computer science and data structures, as well as in understanding the concept of infinity itself.

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